Deck 10: Biotechnology

Question 1

Many restriction enzymes generate ____ on DNA fragments after being cut.

A) frank ends
B) blunt ends
C) curved ends
D) sticky ends
E) oblique ends

Answer 1

D

Question 2

What is a SNP?

A) a computer chip that recognizes differences in DNA sequences
B) variation in a single nucletide of a DNA sequence
C) a tool used in DNA research to cut segments of DNA
D) a drug developed from DNA technology
E) a highly conserved sequence of DNA

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT true about restriction enzymes?

A) Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences.
B) Restriction enzymes cut DNA independently of its origin.
C) Restriction enzymes recognize specific nucleotide sequences.
D) Restriction enzymes cut RNA or DNA sequences at specific sites.
E) More than one of these is NOT true.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

What are the properties of DNA probes?
I. They are labeled with a radioactive tracer.
II. They are short chains of nucleotides.
III. They match the targeted DNA sequence.

A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I only
D) I, II, and III
E) III only

Question 5

What proteins do the APOE gene code for?

A) lipoproteins
B) surface antigens
C) myofilaments
D) hydrolytic enzymes
E) nucleases

Question 6

When a population is made up of individuals who are genetically identical, each individual is said to be a ____ of other individuals.

A) homolog
B) clone
C) twin
D) recombinant
E) probe

Question 7

Which of the following molecules are able to cut DNA molecules at specific sequences?

A) assembly enzymes
B) hydrolytic enzymes
C) restriction enzymes
D) ligase enzymes
E) repair enzymes

Question 8

The e4 variation of the APOE gene increases a person's chances of developing

A) cystic fibrosis.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
E) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.

Question 9

A plasmid may

A) be used in recombinant DNA research.
B) be transferred from one bacterium to another.
C) carry foreign genes.
D) replicate independently of bacterial chromosomes.
E) do all of these.

Question 10

A plasmid is a

A) small segment of DNA that is often isolated from virus chromosomes for cloning purposes.
B) large linear segment of DNA that is often isolated from bacterial chromosomes for cloning purposes.
C) small circular segment of DNA in bacteria that is linked by hydrogen bonds to the main bacterial chromosome.
D) large circular segment of DNA in bacteria that is completely separated with the chromosome.
E) small circular segment of DNA in bacteria that is completely separated from the chromosome.

Question 11

Which of the following describes most accurately the process of DNA cloning?

A) set of laboratory procedures that consist of cutting a segment of DNA with restriction enzymes
B) set of laboratory procedures that consist of isolation of a DNA fragment from a living organism and insertion of it into a plasmid
C) set of laboratory procedures that uses living cells to make many identical copies of a DNA fragment
D) set of laboratory procedures by which a DNA fragment is transferred from a living organism to a SNP chip
E) the manipulation of DNA fragments in a laboratory using modern techniques of molecular biology

Question 12

If the complete genetic information of a person is isolated from some of her cells, cut with restriction enzymes, inserted into a cloning vector, and introduced within bacteria for cloning purposes, what would the set of clones be called containing all the genes of that person?

A) a genetic library
B) a genomic library
C) a gene library
D) a DNA library
E) a nucleotide library

Question 13

Which of the following components is NOT essential for DNA cloning?

A) plasmids
B) ligases
C) helicases
D) DNA fragments
E) restriction enzymes

Question 14

Which of the following describes most accurately the expression "recombinant DNA"?

A) DNA molecule cloned from a given organism
B) DNA molecule that contains genetic information from more than one organism
C) DNA molecule that is moved from one tube to another in a laboratory
D) DNA molecule isolated from a specific organism
E) DNA molecule that has been used in a laboratory for experimental purposes

Question 15

What do biologists use in order to identify clones that contain the DNA fragment of interest?

A) probes
B) plasmids
C) templates
D) primers
E) ligases

Question 16

Which of the following sequences is recognized by the restriction enzyme Eco RI?

A) ATTGGC
B) GAATTC
C) CTTAAG
D) TATGCG
E) TTACGG

Question 17

Which of the following molecules can be used as a cloning vector?

A) plasmids
B) restriction enzymes
C) recombinant DNA
D) DNA fragments
E) SNPs

Question 18

____ is an example of a ____.

A) DNA polymerase; digestive enzyme
B) DNA ligase; digestive enzyme
C) Eco RI; restriction enzyme
D) E. coli ; restriction enzyme
E) Eco RI; SNP

Question 19

During the cloning process, two fragments of DNA are joined together with the help of a

A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA recombinase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) DNA polymerase.
E) RNA polymerase.

Question 20

What percent of a person's 3 billion nucleotides is unique to that person?

A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 25
E) 50

Question 21

Which of the following techniques reveals differences in the number of tandem repeats among individuals?

A) PCR
B) DNA amplification
C) DNA hybridization
D) DNA profiling
E) DNA probe analysis

Question 22

After 30 cycles of PCR cloning of a segment of DNA, how many copies of that segment will there be?

A) 1000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 1,000,000,000

Question 23

If the nucleotide sequence, ACTGAG, represents the sticky end of a DNA molecule, to what other nucleotide sequence would it "stick"?

A) TGACTC
B) UGACUC
C) ACTGAG
D) ACUGUG
E) GAGTCA

Question 24

In the PCR process, which of the following molecular bonds of DNA are disrupted at high temperatures?

A) ionic bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) nonpolar covalent bonds
E) glycosidic bonds

Question 25

Once a probe has hybridized with a gene of interest in a DNA library, how is the hybrid identified?

A) by its sticky tail
B) by its radioactive phosphate group
C) by using restriction enzymes
D) by centrifugation
E) by vector analysis

Question 26

The discovery of which of the following allowed researchers to determine the sequences of nucleotides in DNA molecules?

A) single-nucleotide polymorphisms
B) restriction enzymes
C) DNA assembly enzymes
D) fragment length polymorphisms
E) receptor proteins

Question 27

During a polymerase chain reaction,

A) a DNA template is mixed with primers, nucleotides, and Taq polymerase.
B) the sample is heated in order to allow the two strands of DNA to separate completely.
C) some of the primers base-pair with template DNA.
D) Taq polymerase performs DNA synthesis from the primers.
E) all of these occur.

Question 28

Which of the following procedures is used to amplify DNA in the laboratory?

A) DNA cloning
B) reverse transcription
C) nucleic acid hybridization
D) DNA restriction
E) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Question 29

In the DNA sequence recognized by Eco RI, where is the cut made?

A) after the G
B) between the two As
C) between the two Ts
D) after the second T
E) after the C

Question 30

Which of the following phrases best completes this sentence: Plasmids, as used as tools in DNA research, are

A) clones.
B) recombinants.
C) vectors.
D) restriction enzymes.
E) DNA libraries.

Question 31

What two enzymes do DNA researchers need to cut and paste DNA from different sources?

A) restriction and ligases
B) restriction and polymerases
C) ligases and polymerases
D) restriction and helicases
E) helicases and polymerases

Question 32

What special property do Taq polymerases have that make them useful in PCR?

A) they are stable at high temperatures
B) their hydrogen bonds do not break at low pHs
C) they multiply quickly
D) they are easy to isolate from common fungi
E) more than one of these is a special property of Taq polymerases

Question 33

During a DNA profiling analysis, short tandem nucleotide repeats are first

A) subjected to high heat.
B) inserted into a plasmid.
C) chopped up using a restriction enzyme.
D) placed on a gel for electrophoresis.
E) amplified using PCR.

Question 34

Which of the following lists contain ingredients that are essential for PCR?

A) nucleotides, DNA template, Taq polymerase, and primers
B) nucleotides, DNA template, DNA ligase, and primers
C) restriction enzymes, DNA template, Taq polymerase, and primers
D) nucleotides, DNA template, Taq polymerase, and plasmids
E) nucleotides, DNA template, DNA ligase, and plasmids

Question 35

Which of the following happens first in the PCR process?

A) repeated cycles of high and low temperatures
B) mixing of DNA polymerase with template DNA, nucleotides, and primers
C) DNA hybridization
D) DNA synthesis
E) DNA unwinds

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT used or related to the creation of recombinant DNA?

A) ligases
B) restiction enzymes
C) plasmids
D) SNPs
E) sticky ends

Question 37

After obtaining DNA fragments by PCR, the fragments are

A) separated by a centrifuge.
B) viewed under a microscope.
C) separated by an electric current.
D) inserted into a plasmid.
E) chopped up using restriction enzymes.

Question 38

Which of the following is TRUE of probes?

A) they are artificially made
B) they are isolated from bacteria
C) they are the result of nucleic acid hybridization
D) they are isolated from SNPs
E) more than one of these is true

Question 39

Which of the following is used to locate a gene of interest in an established DNA library?

A) a probe
B) a vector
C) a clone
D) a SNP
E) a fragment

Question 40

About ____ percent of the human genome is unique to each individual.

A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 1
D) 2
E) 5

Question 41

In which of the following organisms is genetically engineered human insulin produced?

A) pigs
B) E. coli
C) humans
D) T. aquaticus
E) B. thurigiensis

Question 42

Which of the following statements is (are) true?

A) Modified Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to deliver recombinant DNA into some plants.
B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects many plants including potatoes, peas, and beans.
C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to improve the nutritional value of some food plants.
D) Soybean, squash, and potatoes can be modified by using Agrobacterium tumefaciens .
E) All of these are true.

Question 43

Which of the following organisms produce genetically engineered chymotrypsin, used in the food industry?

A) a pig
B) a bacterium
C) a yeast
D) a sheep
E) a cow

Question 44

What is the most assured method of identifying an individual?

A) full genome sequencing
B) short tandem repeat analysis
C) SNP-chip analysis
D) DNA-DNA hybridization
E) PCR amplification

Question 45

How many genes does the human genome contain?

A) about 5,000 genes
B) about 10,000 genes
C) about 20,000 genes
D) about 30,000 genes
E) about 7,000 genes

Question 46

For approximately how many years has genetically engineered insulin been used to treat patients with diabetes?

A) 3
B) 10
C) 15
D) 30
E) 60

Question 47

Which of the following sub-disciplines of biology focuses on understanding the entire genetic composition of organisms?

A) evolutionary biology
B) molecular biology
C) genomics
D) comparative anatomy
E) embryology

Question 48

Which of the following organisms is (are) easily modified by genetic engineering?

A) bacteria and yeasts
B) bacteria and mice
C) yeasts and mice
D) molds and mice
E) humans

Question 49

Sequencing the entire human genome

A) helps to identify genes that are essential in the defense system of the human body.
B) allows for the study human genetic diseases.
C) can distinguish absolutely between individuals.
D) allows for comparisons with other species.
E) does all of these.

Question 50

Which of the following organisms is (are) being used routinely in genetic engineering for production of drugs?
I. rats
II. yeasts
III. bacteria

A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
E) III only

Question 51

On which of the following is electrophoresis based?

A) molecular charge
B) molecular bonding
C) molecular size
D) polarity and nonpolarity
E) a combination of more than one of these

Question 52

Traditionally, chymotrypsin used in the food industry was obtained from

A) mold fermentation.
B) yeast fermentation.
C) sheep stomachs.
D) bacterial fermentation.
E) calf stomachs.

Question 53

In which of the following cases would DNA profiling be used?

A) to reconstruct population dispersals
B) to identify the remains of dead people
C) to solve crimes
D) to trace ethnic hertiages
E) to do all of these

Question 54

Researchers introduce DNA into plants by using
I. bacteria
II. electric shocks
III. chemical shocks

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III

Question 55

Which of the following processes consists of modifying an individual's genome?

A) DNA hybridization
B) PCR
C) SNPing
D) DNA profiling
E) genetic engineering

Question 56

Plants have been genetically modified for which of the following purposes?

A) herbicide resistance
B) pest resistance
C) nutritional improvement
D) disease resistance
E) all of these

Question 57

In which of the following cases would DNA profiling NOT be used?

A) resolution of paternity disputes
B) DNA sequencing of a human genome
C) to trace migration routes of humans out of Africa
D) resolution of a crime
E) diagnosis of infectious diseases

Question 58

Short tandem repeats on ____ may be used to determine genetic relationships among male relatives and descendants.

A) the Y chromosome
B) chromosome # 3
C) the X chromosome
D) chromosome # 8
E) chromosome # 20

Question 59

Which of the following procedures are possible with genetic engineering?

A) express a human gene in a bacterium
B) transfer a human protein into a sheep
C) transfer a human genome into a bacterium
D) express a human amino acid in a mouse
E) all of these

Question 60

In which year was the sequencing of the human genome completed?

A) 2003
B) 2001
C) 1999
D) 1997
E) 1995

Question 61

Gene therapy consist of

A) replacing the genomes of an individual with a brand new set of genomes with the goal of treating a genetic defect.
B) replacing a defective gene in an individual with a normal gene with the goal of treating a genetic disorder.
C) transferring a modified gene into an individual with the goal of treating a genetic defect.
D) transferring a normal or a modified gene into an individual with the goal of treating a genetic defect.
E) replacing a defective enzyme in an individual with a normal enzyme with the goal of treating a genetic disorder.

Question 62

Most genetically modified crops carry genes for

A) herbicide resistance.
B) disease resistance.
C) nutritional enhancement.
D) making human medicines.
E) increased yields.

Question 63

Beta- carotene is converted to vitamin ___ in the cells of the small intestine.

A) B12
B) A
C) E
D) C
E) D

Question 64

Golden rice is made more beta-carotene rich with genes from bacteria and

A) corn.
B) mice.
C) tulips.
D) daffodils.
E) oranges.

Question 65

Which of the following is a concern over genetically modified organisms?

A) viral infections
B) tissue rejections
C) animal suffering
D) gene escape
E) all of these are concerns over genetically modified organisms

Question 66

Currently, the only possible cure for genetic disorders is

A) genetically modified drugs.
B) xenotransplantation.
C) whole genome replacement.
D) gene therapy.
E) GMOs.

Question 67

The transferring of an organ from one species to another is called

A) xenotransplantation.
B) transorganization.
C) illegal.
D) genomics.
E) cloning.

Question 68

Which of the following organisms is used in the genetic engineering of plants?

A) E. coli
B) T. aquaticus
C) A. tumefaciens
D) P. flourescens
E) B. thuringiensis

Question 69

Which of the following genetic problems is NOT being addressed by gene therapy?

A) Down syndrome
B) cystic fibrosis
C) hemophilia
D) immune disorder
E) cancers

Question 70

What technology using bacteria is used to genetically engineer plants?

A) plasmid vectoring
B) DNA profiling
C) whole genome sequencing
D) SNPing
E) PCR

Question 71

Before it was genetically engineered, what was the source of chymotrypsin used in cheese production?

A) calf stomachs
B) pig livers
C) human cadavers
D) sheep brains
E) cow intestines

Question 72

In gene therapy, what is transferred into an individual's body cells?

A) new genomes
B) recombinant DNA
C) GMOs
D) bacterial plasmids
E) DNA libraries

Question 73

Transgenic goats are now able to produce proteins used to treat

A) cystic fibrosis.
B) heart attacks.
C) blood clotting disorders.
D) nerve gas exposure.
E) all of these.

Question 74

Crops have been genetically modified to resist the herbicide,

A) glyphosate.
B) DDT.
C) triazine.
D) 2, 4-D.
E) atrazine.

Question 75

The term "biotech barnyards" refers to

A) the production of human products by farm animals.
B) the development of new species of farm animals.
C) the increased production of milk, egg, wool, etc.
D) modern methods of raising more animals on less feed.
E) the creation of transgenic animals that can produce several products.

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT true of GMO crops?

A) there have been no problems with genes escaping from GMO plants
B) some GMO crops allow farmers to use fewer pesticides
C) some GMO crops have fewer weeds
D) some GMO crops are more nutritious
E) all of these are true of GMO crops- none of these is NOT true

Question 77

Which of the following represents xenotransplantation?

A) cows resistant to mad cow disease
B) goats that produce spider silk
C) corn with Bt genes
D) pigs carrying human livers
E) more than one of these represents xenotransplantation

Question 78

What is a transgenic organism?

A) an organism with multiple copies of the same gene
B) an organism that has genes from another species
C) an organism that does not use DNA to specify proteins
D) an organism that has had its entire genome sequenced
E) an organism that has been DNA profiled

Question 79

How much Golden Rice will supply a child's daily need for the vitamin that is converted from beta-carotene?

A) two teaspoons
B) a half of a cup
C) one cup
D) one quart
E) one pint

Question 80

In agriculture, the use of GMOs is regulated by

A) the FDA
B) the AHA
C) Greenpeace
D) the USDA
E) the NIH