Deck 2: Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth

Question 1

Genotype is to phenotype as

A) homozygous is to heterozygous.
B) nurture is to nature.
C) DNA is to deoxyribonucleic acid.
D) chromosome pattern is to physical, behavioral, and psychological features.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Gene is approached by a mad geneticist who says he will pay Gene either $100 for each pair of his autosomes or $500 for each pair of his sex chromosomes. Assuming Gene wants to make as much money as possible, which offer should he take?

A) $100 for each pair of autosomes
B) $500 for each pair of sex chromosomes
C) Either one, because Gene will make the same amount with both offers
D) Neither one, because humans have neither autosomes nor sex chromosomes

Answer 2

A

Question 3

When looking through a microscope at an entire set of human male chromosomes, how would you be able to differentiate an autosome pair from a sex chromosome pair?

A) The sex chromosome pair would be about 10 times larger than the autosome pair.
B) The circular-shaped cells would be the autosomes and the square shapes would be the sex chromosomes.
C) There would be three cells in the autosome "pair" and two cells in the sex chromosome "pair."
D) The shape of the sex chromosomes would differ, whereas each autosome pair would look identical.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which statement concerning the sickle-cell trait is true?

A) Individuals with the trait have the dominant phenotype but possess the recessive genotype.
B) Individuals with the trait have both a dominant and recessive allele for the disorder.
C) Individuals with the trait are genetically predisposed to the disorder but cannot display any symptoms.
D) Individuals with the trait tend to have the most severe form of the disease.

Question 5

If tallness is dominant and designated as "T," and shortness is recessive and designated as "s," who would likely be short?

A) Blake, who is "sT"
B) Adam, who is "Ts"
C) Alicia, who is "ss"
D) Miley, who is "TT"

Question 6

Dr. Fry has just been informed that his son has sickle-cell trait. As a knowledgeable physician, Dr. Fry would realize that his son's body is most likely to experience

A) excess levels of body fat.
B) serious oxygen deprivation.
C) decreased lung capacity.
D) blindness.

Question 7

How would you create an individual who will definitely have blue eyes?

A) Make sure he has a pair of homozygous chromosomes for blue eyes.
B) Make sure he has a pair of heterozygous chromosomes for eye color.
C) Make sure he has a pair of alleles for eye color.
D) Make sure he has one recessive gene for blue eyes.

Question 8

Kirk is heterozygous for cheek dimples but is born with big dimples in both cheeks. Apparently, the allele for cheek dimples is

A) dominant.
B) sex-linked.
C) recessive.
D) polygenetic.

Question 9

The threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material are called

A) chromosomes.
B) germ discs.
C) ectoderms.
D) phenotypes.

Question 10

A sperm cell contains a total of 22

A) genes.
B) chromosomes.
C) autosomes.
D) sex cells.

Question 11

Kyoko is 5 feet, 11 inches tall, plays tennis, and is an all-around nice person. This is a description of Kyoko's

A) allele.
B) genotype.
C) homozygosity.
D) phenotype.

Question 12

The first ____ pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes and the _______pair are called sex chromosomes.

A) 2; 3rd
B) 10; 11th
C) 22; 23rd
D) 46; 47th

Question 13

Human DNA is composed of a total of ____ different nucleotide bases.

A) 4
B) 23
C) 444
D) 30,000

Question 14

Which process can best be explained by alleles?

A) The fact that phenotypes produce genotypes
B) The formation of identical twins through the splitting of a fertilized egg
C) The instructions for hair color come from two sources on the chromosome
D) The teratogenic effects associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)

Question 15

Which best exemplifies the concept of incomplete dominance?

A) An individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair
B) An individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy
C) An individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of average weight
D) An individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent

Question 16

Linda has one allele for curly hair and another for straight hair. Linda's alleles are

A) polyzygotic.
B) dizygotic.
C) homozygous.
D) heterozygous.

Question 17

What combination would result in a boy?

A) A 17th pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
B) A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
C) A 17th pair of chromosomes with two Xs
D) A 23rd pair of chromosomes with two Xs

Question 18

Genes provide the cell with a specific set of ____ instructions.

A) hormonal
B) biochemical
C) in vitro
D) bioelectric

Question 19

ThThe functional units of heredity are

A) genes.
B) neurotransmitters produced in the brain.
C) phenotypes.
D) basic chemical compounds that form the single helix of a DNA molecule.

Question 20

The average child has approximately ____ genes.

A) 25
B) 25,000
C) 25,000,000
D) 25,000,000,000

Question 21

Janaka's two-year-old daughter is intellectually disordered (formerly known as mentally retarded) due, in part, to a diet that included fish, bread, and dairy products. The most likely diagnosis for Janaka's daughter is that she has

A) Turner's syndrome.
B) Huntington's disease.
C) Tay Sachs disease.
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU).

Question 22

As dizygotic twins, Maya and Naomi

A) are genetically identical.
B) must have come from the same fertilized egg.
C) share all phenotypes.
D) share about half of their genes.

Question 23

Which physical characteristic is most indicative of an individual with Down syndrome?

A) An enlarged head
B) A fold of skin over each eyelid
C) A long neck
D) A larger nose than same-age peers

Question 24

Huntington's disease is an unusual genetic disorder in that it is a fatal disease caused by dominant alleles that

A) impact late enough in life so that the individual can reproduce.
B) are controllable through diet.
C) both must come from the mother.
D) strike only males.

Question 25

As a geneticist, you found that afetus has 47 chromosomes. What would be the most likely conclusion drawn from this information?

A) The child has Down syndrome
B) The child has sickle-cell anemia
C) The child has phenylketonuria (PKU)
D) This is a normal number of chromosomes

Question 26

Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of behavioral genetics?

A) "Your personality is all in your genes"
B) "Your personality is all in your environment"
C) "People are either very open to new experiences or avoid new experiences at all costs"
D) "Openness to new experience is not an either/or proposition, but represents a wide range of reactions"

Question 27

José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more similar to his biological mom than to his adoptive mom. How should you interpret this data?

A) Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic.
B) Personality characteristics are learned.
C) Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.
D) Personality characteristics appear to be recessive.

Question 28

As a behavioral geneticist, Professor Klink is most likely to calculate the extent to which depression is inherited using a ____ coefficient.

A) nonshared
B) DNA
C) polygenetic
D) heritability

Question 29

As a behavioral geneticist, Juan would most likely be studying

A) the maze-learning behavior of rats.
B) the evolution of eyesight over the life span.
C) the inheritance of behavioral and psychological traits.
D) the physiological structure of a gene.

Question 30

After creating a child's DNA profile, behavioral geneticists can then look to see

A) if the genotype is associated with behavior phenotypes.
B) if the DNA links the child to a certain geographic location.
C) if the child is going to be cared for by adoptive parents.
D) if the child ranks high or low eugenically.

Question 31

Which result would not support the idea that genes play a significant role in behavior?

A) Finding dizygotic twins to be more similar than monozygotic twins
B) Finding children to be more similar to their biological parents than to their adoptive parents
C) Finding similarities between biological siblings
D) Finding monozygotic twins to be more similar than pairs of unrelated individuals

Question 32

Heredity and environment

A) interact dynamically throughout development.
B) act independently throughout development.
C) interact dynamically in childhood and independently in adulthood.
D) act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood.

Question 33

If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, you would rightly conclude that the disorder is always classifiable as

A) recessive.
B) polygenetic.
C) dominant.
D) sex-linked.

Question 34

John and Wayne have the exact same genes. This indicates that they must be

A) dizygotic twins.
B) monozygotic twins.
C) heterozygous.
D) co-dominant.

Question 35

The concept that genotypes are not the only things that control traits involves the fact that

A) dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical.
B) each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes.
C) recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes.
D) the environment has little impact on behavior.

Question 36

Which individual with a genetic predisposition toward being extroverted is demonstrating successful niche-picking?

A) Wink, who is a game-show host
B) Wilbur, who is a horse trainer
C) Sebastian, who is a hermit who lives in a cave by himself
D) Dexter, who spends a lot of time studying in the library

Question 37

_________ occurs when an individual intentionally seeks out an environment that matches characteristics driven by his or her genes.

A) Passive gene-environment interactions
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Niche-picking
D) Polygenetic inheritance

Question 38

A heritability coefficient of ____ means about 50 percent of the difference between people on a specific characteristic is the result of heredity.

A) 5
B) 5
C) 50
D) 500

Question 39

Because of his accurate knowledge of genetics and disorders, Benson knows that his newborn son has no chance of having

A) Turner's syndrome.
B) Kleinfelter's syndrome.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Down syndrome.

Question 40

Nonshared environmental influences involve forces that make siblings

A) act in virtually identical ways.
B) homozygous.
C) dizygotic twins.
D) different from one another.

Question 41

Mi Lei is pregnant and her body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hormonal changes that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called

A) implantation.
B) conception.
C) dilation.
D) effacement.

Question 42

Hair and the nervous system develop during the embryonic period from cells contained in the ____ layer.

A) mesoderm
B) endoderm
C) placenta
D) ectoderm

Question 43

A physician has just informed pregnant Moesha that the human organism developing inside of her has just begun to show differentiation of its cells. As a knowledgeable student, you would know that such an organism is technically called a(n)

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) neonate.

Question 44

Prenatal development begins

A) with sperm production.
B) with ovulation.
C) at conception.
D) at implantation into the uterus.

Question 45

Whose behavior best exemplifies eugenics?

A) Dr. Green, who uses an in vitro fertilization technique
B) Dr. Black, who allows only certain individuals to mate
C) Dr. White, who studies the effects of thalidomide on prenatal development
D) Dr. Brown, who closely monitors the nutrition of expectant mothers

Question 46

The uniting of the egg and sperm (conception) typically takes place in the

A) uterus.
B) testes.
C) fallopian tube.
D) ovary.

Question 47

A developing human that is traveling from a fallopian tube to the uterus would most accurately be described as a(n)

A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) amnion.

Question 48

Which period is not considered part of prenatal development?

A) Period of the fetus
B) Period of the zygote
C) Period of the neonate
D) Period of the embryo

Question 49

If Agnieszka found out that she was conceived through in vitro fertilization, she would know for certain that

A) she was conceived in a Petri dish.
B) she was conceived inside a fallopian tube.
C) her biological parents were not the same as the parents who reared her.
D) the woman who carried her as a baby was not the woman who reared her.

Question 50

Damage to cells in the embryo's ____ layer would be most likely to result in the development of a defective digestive system.

A) endoderm
B) placenta
C) ectoderm
D) mesoderm

Question 51

At five weeks after conception, a developing human is most accurately called a(n)

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) neonate.

Question 52

The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as

A) fertilization.
B) implantation.
C) niche-picking.
D) dilation.

Question 53

The developing human organism that has just become completely embedded in the wall of the uterus is called the

A) amnion.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) embryo.

Question 54

Jack and Jill are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack's parents encourage him to run. However, they discourage Jill from engaging in athletic activity. As a result, Jack is much faster at running up a hill than Jill. The difference in Jack and Jill's behavior is best explained by

A) nonshared environmental influences.
B) active gene-environment relations.
C) polygenetic effects.
D) niche-picking.

Question 55

Which statement concerning preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) is false ?

A) It is usually used with couples known to be at risk for genetic disorders.
B) It cannot be used to determine if a child-to-be is male or female.
C) If parents are not pleased with the test results, they can have a fertilized egg discarded.
D) It can be used to determine a child-to-be's hair color.

Question 56

The period of the ____ lasts for approximately two weeks.

A) embryo
B) zygote
C) fetus
D) neonate

Question 57

Which event occurs following in vitro fertilization?

A) A fertilized egg is placed directly into the uterus.
B) A sperm is injected directly into the fallopian tube.
C) A fertilized egg is directly placed in the ovary.
D) A single sperm is injected directly into a fertilized egg.

Question 58

The ____ is the cluster of cells in the center of the zygote that will eventually develop into the baby.

A) Amnion
B) stem cell
C) germ disc
D) placenta

Question 59

What began as a single fertilized egg has just separated into two distinct eggs. This indicates the formation of ____ twins that has occurred during the ____ period of development.

A) fraternal; zygotic
B) fraternal; embryonic
C) identical; zygotic
D) identical; embryonic

Question 60

The ____ is the structure through which a mother and an embryo exchange waste and nutrients.

A) amnion
B) stem cell
C) germ disc
D) placenta

Question 61

A doctor could best illustrate the proximodistal principle by discussing the fact that

A) male fetuses develop faster than female fetuses.
B) identical twins tend to be smaller than fraternal twins.
C) the outside portion of the amniotic sac is thicker than the inside portion.
D) a baby can control its shoulder before it can control its fingers.

Question 62

Maternal stress is most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus when that stress is

A) intermittent and extreme.
B) intermittent and moderate.
C) prolonged and extreme.
D) chronic and moderate.

Question 63

The sac in which the embryo resides is called the

A) ectoderm.
B) amnion.
C) germ disc.
D) placenta.

Question 64

During prenatal development, the arm develops before the fingers. This most illustrates the ____ principle.

A) Premack
B) coefficient
C) cephalocaudal
D) proximodistal

Question 65

A knowledgeable nutritionist would tell a pregnant mother that, in order to reduce the risk of having a baby born with spina bifida, mom needs to make sure that she is ingesting an adequate amount of

A) vitamin A.
B) iron.
C) vitamin E.
D) folic acid.

Question 66

Halley is 40 years old and she and her daughter Berry, 20, are both currently pregnant. Which statement with regard to these two mothers is most accurate?

A) Berry has a greater risk of giving birth to a baby with sickle-cell anemia.
B) Halley is twice as fertile as Berry.
C) Berry's odds of having a baby with Down syndrome are three times higher than Halley's.
D) Halley has a greater risk of having a miscarriage.

Question 67

Dr. Swift tells Taylor that her developing embryo is showing distortions in the development of its circulatory system. As a knowledgeable student of human development, Taylor should realize that the problem is within cells of the ____ layer.

A) placenta
B) mesoderm
C) ectoderm
D) endoderm

Question 68

One key purpose of the amniotic fluid is to

A) provide the embryo with nutrients.
B) stimulate development of neurotransmitters.
C) screen the flow of blood between mother and embryo.
D) maintain a constant temperature for the embryo.

Question 69

The ____ houses the blood vessels that join the embryo and its mother.

A) umbilical cord
B) amnion
C) germ disc
D) mesoderm

Question 70

The fact that the embryonic head develops before the body illustrates the ____ principle.

A) cephalocaudal
B) incomplete dominance
C) proximodistal
D) niche-picking

Question 71

Which organism can truthfully state, "It is during my time that all body parts and organs are first put into place?"

A) The neonate
B) The zygote
C) The fetus
D) The embryo

Question 72

Currently, the earliest "age of viability" occurs around ____ weeks after conception.

A) 14
B) 22
C) 30
D) 38

Question 73

The thick, greasy substance that covers the fetus around five to six months after conception is called

A) placenta.
B) vernix.
C) amnion.
D) endoderm.

Question 74

The main reason for why teenage mothers tend to give birth to less healthy infants than mothers in their 20s is that they

A) tend not to receive good prenatal care.
B) take too many vitamins.
C) have more genetically defective eggs.
D) are more likely to smoke while pregnant.

Question 75

Marsha's doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of prenatal development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child?

A) 1 day
B) 3 weeks
C) 9 weeks
D) 28 weeks

Question 76

While observing a special monitor, a physician tells an expectant mother, "As you can see, the legs and arms have just begun to emerge." From this description, you should realize that the two are looking at a(n)

A) zygote.
B) fetus.
C) embryo.
D) germ disc.

Question 77

Ectoderm is to endoderm as

A) heterozygous is to homozygous.
B) fraternal is to identical.
C) outer is to inner.
D) bone is to muscle.

Question 78

The placenta

A) directly connects the bloodstream of the embryo to the bloodstream of the mother.
B) contains amniotic fluid.
C) helps the fetus to maintain a constant temperature.
D) allows for an exchange of nutrients and waste.

Question 79

Which event is characteristic of the period of the fetus?

A) The first beat of the heart
B) The first neural activity in the neocortex
C) The significant growth in the cerebral cortex
D) The attachment of the umbilical cord to the placenta

Question 80

Just after the birth of her son Nelly, mom Kelly is informed that little Nelly's neural tube did not properly close during his prenatal development. This would mean that Nelly will be diagnosed with

A) spina bifida.
B) muscular dystrophy.
C) cerebral palsy.
D) sickle-cell anemia.