Deck 40: Protection, Support, and Movement

Question 1

Figure 40-3 ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. In which portion of the bone is fat stored?

A) B
B) C
C) J
D) H
E) I

Answer 1

D

Question 2

What is the major difference between the endoskeleton and the exoskeleton?

A) The endoskeleton is capable of growth.
B) The endoskeleton permits movement.
C) The endoskeleton contains calcium.
D) The endoskeleton is molted more frequently.
E) The endoskeleton provides support.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Figure 40-3 ​

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The portion of the bone labeled E in the accompanying figure is called the

A) periosteum.
B) diaphysis.
C) epiphysis.
D) articular cartilage.
E) metaphysis.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Figure 40-1 ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. Which structure is the source of sebum, a substance that inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12

Question 5

The difference between spongy bone and compact bone is that spongy bone

A) is found near the surfaces of bone, while compact bone is found interiorly.
B) consists of osteons, while the compact consists of thin strands of bone.
C) is filled with red bone marrow, while compact bone is not
D) occupies the diaphysis, while compact bone occupies the epiphysis.
E) is involved in bone development, while compact bone is not.

Question 6

Figure 40-1 ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. Which region of the skin insulates the body from outside temperature extremes?

A) 1
B) 10
C) 11
D) 14
E) 15

Question 7

The condition that is characterized by a loss of calcium from the bone is called

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteopenia.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 8

A major function of keratin is to

A) absorb UV radiation.
B) insulate the body.
C) nourish sensory receptors.
D) synthesize fats and waxes.
E) create a diffusion barrier.

Question 9

Figure 40-3 ​

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In the accompanying figure, the function of the structure labeled C, particularly in small children, is to

A) produce blood cells.
B) act as a growth center.
C) provide mechanical strength.
D) serve as an attachment site for tendons.
E) nourish the bone tissue.

Question 10

Which process is a specialized function carried out by epithelial tissue?

A) Exchange of gases
B) Production of hormones
C) Regulation of heart rate
D) Facilitation of muscle contraction
E) Insulation of nerve fibers

Question 11

Adipose tissue is found in which layer of the skin?

A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous tissue
D) Stratum basale
E) Stratum corneum

Question 12

Which class of bones is part of the appendicular skeletal division?

A) Skull
B) Vertebral column
C) Ribs
D) Pelvis
E) Sternum

Question 13

The components of the pectoral girdle are

A) three fused hipbones.
B) the clavicles and the scapula.
C) the ribs and the clavicles.
D) the ribs and the sternum.
E) the ribs and the digits.

Question 14

Large, multinucleate cells that break down bone are called

A) osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes.
C) osteocytes.
D) chondroblasts.
E) osteoclasts.

Question 15

When the ______ cannot absorb all the UV rays, the skin becomes ______.

A) Melatonin; suntanned
B) melanin; suntanned
C) melanin; sunburned
D) melatonin; sunburned
E) melanin; cancerous

Question 16

Figure 40-1 ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. Which region of the skin is composed mainly of collagen fibers?

A) 1
B) 6
C) 11
D) 14
E) 15

Question 17

Figure 40-3 ​

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The portion of the bone labeled I in the accompanying figure is called the

A) periosteum.
B) lacunae.
C) epiphysis.
D) osteon.
E) metaphysis.

Question 18

Which of the following groups of vertebrae is located farthest from the head?

A) Sacral
B) Thoracic
C) Cervical
D) Coccygeal
E) Cranial

Question 19

People who undergo radiation therapy sometimes develop anemia resulting from a decreased production of red blood cells. This is because radiation affects

A) spongy bone.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteoclasts.
D) lacunae.
E) metaphysis.

Question 20

Figure 40-1 ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. Which structure of the skin represents the sweat gland?

A) 1
B) 6
C) 11
D) 14
E) 15

Question 21

To begin the actual contraction, calcium ions must first bind to ____ in the muscle cell.

A) actin
B) myosin
C) troponin
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) T tubules

Question 22

What is the primary cause of the symptoms associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A) Degeneration of osteoblasts
B) Degeneration of osteoclasts
C) Accumulation of synovial fluid
D) Accumulation of articular cartilage
E) Thickening of bone tissue

Question 23

The immediate source of energy for muscle contraction is ____.

A) ATP
B) Creatine phosphate
C) Glycogen
D) Lactic acid
E) Carbon monoxide

Question 24

Which process is an example of a function carried out by the skeletal system?

A) Transmission of mechanical forces
B) Conduction of nerve impulses
C) Regulation of body temperature
D) Transportation of hemoglobin
E) Contraction of muscle fibers

Question 25

The function of synovial fluid is to

A) store calcium.
B) reduce friction.
C) produce marrow.
D) carry nutrients.
E) resorb bone.

Question 26

Figure 40-2 ​

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The type of support illustrated in the accompanying figure is a(n)

A) hydrostatic skeleton.
B) exoskeleton.
C) integumentary system.
D) epidermal skeleton.
E) endoskeleton.

Question 27

Helena's doctor has advised her to take calcium supplements to help prevent

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteopenia.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 28

Bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect bones and limit movement at the joint are called ____.

A) tendons
B) ligaments
C) sutures
D) osteobands
E) cartilage

Question 29

Figure 40-4 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. In which part of the muscle fiber are calcium ions stored?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Question 30

Most joints found in the human body are

A) synovial.
B) immovable.
C) slightly movable.
D) freely movable.
E) cartilaginous.

Question 31

What is the correct order of events that occur during muscle contraction? 1) Muscle shortens
2) Calcium binds to troponin
3) Filaments slide
4) T tubules are depolarized
5) Acetylcholine is released
6) ATP molecule is split

A) 4 → 5 → 2 → 1 → 3 → 6
B) 4 → 2 → 5 → 6 → 1 → 3
C) 5 → 2 → 4 → 1 → 6 → 3
D) 6 → 2 → 5 → 4 → 3 → 1
E) 5 → 4 → 2 → 6 → 3 → 1

Question 32

Figure 40-4 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ​

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Refer to the accompanying figure. An action potential spreads and triggers Ca²⁺ release through the structure labeled as

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Question 33

The condition that is characterized by loss of bone mineral is called

A) osteitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteopenia.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) osteon disease.

Question 34

Why are delicate movements difficult in a hydrostatic skeleton?

A) Force tends to be transmitted equally in all directions throughout the entire fluid-filled body of the animal.
B) Force tends to be transmitted anteriorly in fluid-filled body of the animal.
C) Force tends to be transmitted posteriorly in fluid-filled body of the animal.
D) Force tends to be transmitted radially in fluid-filled body of the animal.
E) Force tends to be transmitted ventrally in fluid-filled body of the animal.

Question 35

Muscles act _____ to one another, which means that the movement produced by one can be reversed by another.

A) agonistically
B) retroactively
C) proactively
D) antagonistically
E) acrimoniously

Question 36

Troponin and tropomyosin regulate

A) calcium storage and release.
B) actin and myosin interactions.
C) action potential transmission.
D) acetylcholine storage and release.
E) rate of muscle fiber division.

Question 37

The basic unit of muscle contraction is known as the

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) transverse tubule.
C) sarcomere.
D) sarcolemma.
E) motor unit.

Question 38

What is a disadvantage of the exoskeleton?

A) It cannot be replaced if damaged.
B) It must be shed to accommodate growth.
C) It is easily penetrated by predators.
D) It requires high ATP levels for continuous growth.
E) It does not permit movement of the organism.

Question 39

Figure 40-2 ​

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Contraction of the fibers labeled A in the accompanying figure results in

A) elongation of the body.
B) elongation of the tentacles.
C) elongation of the gastrovascular cavity.
D) shortening of the body.
E) expansion of the pedal disk.

Question 40

Generally, movements are accomplished by

A) a single muscle exerting a pulling force only.
B) a single muscle exerting a pushing force only.
C) groups of muscles opposing the actions of one another.
D) groups of muscles collectively exerting pulling forces only.
E) groups of muscles collectively exerting pushing forces only.

Question 41

The exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of chitin.

Question 42

How is the structure of insect flight muscles adapted to their function?

Question 43

The collagen fibers in bone are secreted by osteoblasts.

Question 44

Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Question 45

Describe the three major types of skeletal muscle fibers found in vertebrates.

Question 46

The repeating units of muscle contraction are called myofibrils.

Question 47

Keratin is a mixture of fats and waxes that inhibits growth of harmful bacteria.

Question 48

The axial skeleton of vertebrates consists of the bones of the limbs, the pectoral girdle, and most of the pelvic girdle.

Question 49

The Z line consists of parts of actin filaments on two adjacent sarcomeres.

Question 50

The deepest layer of the epidermis is the stratum corneum.

Question 51

Identify the two main divisions of the vertebrate skeleton and identify the bones that are representative of each division.

Question 52

Joint capsules are typically reinforced by ligaments.

Question 53

How does smooth muscle differ from skeletal muscle?

A) Smooth muscle attaches to bones via tendons.
B) Smooth muscle has a striated appearance.
C) Smooth muscle undergoes quick contractions.
D) Smooth muscles are connected via gap junctions.
E) Smooth muscle cross bridges form transiently.

Question 54

The body of a cnidarian is supported by a hydrostatic skeleton.

Question 55

Many insects must warm up before they fly in order to

A) generate hemolymph.
B) increase ATP synthesis.
C) enhance gas exchange.
D) elevate actin synthesis.
E) diminish muscle rigidity.

Question 56

The main shaft of a long bone is known as the epiphysis.

Question 57

Endoskeletons are shed in the process of ecdysis.

Question 58

The breast muscle of geese have ____, while those of chickens have _____.

A) white fibers; red fibers
B) slow-oxidative fibers; fast-glycolytic fibers
C) red fibers; fast-oxidative fibers
D) red fibers; slow-oxidative fibers
E) slow-oxidative fibers; fast-oxidative fibers

Question 59

A smooth, sustained contraction of skeletal muscle is called a

A) simple twitch.
B) tetanus.
C) pulse contraction.
D) red fiber contraction.
E) white fiber contraction.

Question 60

The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma.

Question 62

When a motor neuron transmits a message, it releases the neurotransmitter serotonin.

Question 65

Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically coupled by junctions called intercalated discs.

Question 66

Explain why rigor mortis occurs following death.

Question 68

During the process of muscle contraction, Ca²⁺ binds tropomyosin.

Question 69

Briefly describe the sequence of events that take place in muscle contraction.

Question 70

Compare and contrast the function of the external epithelium and its derivatives in invertebrates and vertebrates.

Question 73

What are joints? Describe the main types of vertebrate joints and provide examples.