Deck 9: How Cells Reproduce

Question 1

When viewing a cell culture under a microscope, most cells would be in which phase of cell cycle?

A) telophase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) cytokinesis
E) prophase

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which phases comprise interphase?

A) G₁ and G₂
B) S and G₂
C) G₁ and S
D) G₁, S, and G₂
E) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which list correctly describes the sequence of events that occurs during cell division, beginning at interphase?

A) nuclear division; DNA replication; cytoplasmic division
B) DNA replication; cytoplasmic division; nuclear division
C) cytoplasmic division; nuclear division; DNA replication
D) nuclear division; cytoplasmic division; DNA replication
E) DNA replication; nuclear division; cytoplasmic division

Answer 3

E

Question 4

_____ is the stage of the cell cycle during which a cell performs its normal metabolic processes.

A) G₁
B) S
C) G₂
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 5

Chromosomes are unduplicated during which phase of cell cycle?

A) S
B) prophase
C) G₁
D) G₂
E) metaphase

Question 6

HeLa cells were critical in _____.

A) developing the polio vaccine
B) developing a cure for malaria
C) understanding fertilization
D) developing a cervical cancer vaccine
E) understanding cloning

Question 7

In mitosis, _____.

A) the chromosome number is halved
B) the chromosome number is doubled
C) the chromosome number stays the same
D) the chromosome number may double or be halved depending on the species
E) gametes are formed

Question 8

A parent cell with 12 chromosomes will produce daughter cells with _____ chromosomes by mitosis.

A) 48
B) 24
C) 12
D) 6
E) 3

Question 9

Which event occurs during interphase?

A) The cytoplasm divides.
B) The cell doubles its cytoplasmic contents.
C) The nuclear envelope disassembles.
D) The nucleus divides.
E) Protein synthesis is halted.

Question 10

After meiosis, resulting daughter cells will contain _____.

A) the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
B) half the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
C) twice the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
D) three times the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries
E) four times the number of chromosomes than the parent cell carries

Question 11

Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are _____.

A) aneuploid
B) diploid
C) triploid
D) haploid
E) tetraploid

Question 12

Pairs of duplicated chromosomes produced during S phase are called ______.

A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromosomes
C) sister chromatids
D) heterologous chromosomes
E) homogeneous chromosomes

Question 13

Meiosis is the basis for _____.

A) cellular division
B) sexual reproduction
C) asexual reproduction
D) sexual and asexual reproduction
E) distribution of cytoplasm

Question 14

Immortal cell lineages _____.

A) are derived from normal body cells
B) are unable to grow outside the body
C) have limited research applications
D) are derived from cancerous cells
E) are used in cell replacement therapies

Question 15

The spindle apparatus is made of _____.

A) centromeres
B) microfilaments
C) microtubules
D) chromatids
E) nucleotides

Question 16

Meiosis produces _____.

A) sperm cells
B) egg cells
C) body cells
D) sperm and egg cells
E) sperm, egg, and body cells

Question 17

Which organisms replicate cells by mitosis?

A) animals and bacteria
B) animals and plants
C) bacteria and plants
D) archaea and bacteria
E) archaea and plants

Question 18

The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

A) chimpanzee
B) rat
C) human
D) guinea pig
E) dog

Question 19

During S phase, _____.

A) chromosomes condense
B) the cell produces proteins in preparation for mitosis
C) the cytoplasm begins to divide
D) DNA is replicated
E) sister chromatids separate from each other

Question 20

Which cells are least likely to proceed into G₁?

A) most skin cells
B) most liver cells
C) most intestinal cells
D) most red blood cells
E) most nerve cells

Question 21

In a human cell, there are _____after DNA replicates during S phase.

A) 92 chromosomes and 46 pairs of sister chromatids
B) 46 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
C) 23 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
D) 92 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister chromatids
E) 40 chromosomes and 20 pairs of sister chromatids

Question 22

Sister chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during _____.

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) interphase
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 23

Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.   The cell in micrograph "II"  is at which stage of the cell cycle?

A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase

Question 24

In what phase of the cell cycle does a typical cell spend most of its life?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase

Question 25

Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis? I. metaphase
II) telophase
III) prophase
IV) anaphase

A) II, I, IV, III
B) I, II, III, IV
C) III, I, IV, II
D) IV, III, II, I
E) I, IV, II, III

Question 26

The spindle apparatus appears during _____.

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) interphase
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 27

Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.     The cell in micrograph "IV"  is at which stage of the cell cycle?

A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase

Question 28

In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes arrive at opposite sides of the cell?

A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase

Question 29

Nuclear envelopes reform during _____.

A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase

Question 30

The cell plate in dividing plant cells is composed of _____.

A) microfilaments
B) the cytoplasmic membrane
C) vesicles with wall-building materials
D) Golgi bodies
E) microtubules

Question 31

Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.    
The cell in micrograph "I"  is at which stage of the cell cycle?

A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase

Question 32

Division of the cytoplasm in animal cells begins _____.

A) as microtubules assemble at each pole of the nucleus
B) as Golgi body vesicles are guided by microtubules to the center of the cell
C) during S phase
D) as rigid phospholipid bilayer is synthesized in between the dividing cells
E) as a cleavage furrow is created by microfilaments in the cell ' s midsection

Question 33

In what phase of the cell cycle does an actively dividing cell produce the proteins necessary for mitosis?

A) G₁
B) S
C) G₂
D) prophase
E) G₁ and G₂

Question 34

The phase of the cell cycle during which cytoplasmic division occurs is _____.

A) G₁
B) S
C) G₂
D) mitosis
E) cytokinesis

Question 35

Chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the cell during _____.

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) interphase
D) prophase
E) telophase

Question 36

The cells of which individual do not have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes?

A) a male
B) a female
C) an individual with a recessive disease, such as hemophilia
D) an individual with measles
E) an individual with polio

Question 37

Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question.   The cell in micrograph "III"  is at which stage of the cell cycle?

A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase

Question 38

A chicken has 78 chromosomes. A chicken cell will contain _____ chromosomes at the beginning of prophase and _____ chromosomes after mitotic division is complete.

A) 78; 39
B) 78; 78
C) 39; 78
D) 156; 78
E) 78; 156

Question 39

Which of the following occurs in prophase?

A) sister chromatids attach
B) DNA replicates
C) chromosomes align in the middle of the cell
D) the nuclear envelope breaks down
E) sister chromatids separate

Question 40

Which energy source fuels cell division in animal cells?

A) GTP
B) ATP
C) kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
D) glycerol
E) fat deposits

Question 41

Sexual reproduction _____.

A) leads to uniform characteristics in a population
B) results in new combinations of genetic traits
C) requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction
D) produces genetic clones
E) produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction

Question 42

At the beginning of prophase I, there are _____ chromosomes in the germ cell that will develop into a human sperm cell.

A) 23
B) 92
C) 46
D) half as many (as compared to somatic cell)
E) twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)

Question 43

Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the center of the cell during _____ of meiosis.

A) metaphase I
B) telophase I
C) prophase II
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II

Question 44

Tumor suppressor genes _____.

A) will turn into cancer genes
B) encode proteins that inhibit mitosis
C) encode proteins that promote mitosis
D) are cancer genes that back mutate into normal genes
E)  encode proteins that promote DNA replication

Question 45

A cell cycle checkpoint for S phase would likely inhibit progression through the cell cycle if _____.

A) there are not enough proteins for division to continue
B) ATP supply in the cell is low
C) there is DNA damage
D) the temperature of the cell is too low
E) surrounding cells are dividing

Question 46

Which of the following is/are essential for formation of the cleavage furrow during cytoplasmic division in animal cells?

A) a contractile ring
B) Golgi body vesicles
C) ATP molecules
D) a contractile ring and Golgi body vesicles
E) a contractile ring and ATP molecules

Question 47

Alternative or different forms of the same gene are called _____.

A) homozygous
B) chromatids
C) alleles
D) homologous
E) karyotypes

Question 48

The pairing of chromosomes and crossing over occur during _____ of meiosis.

A) metaphase I
B) anaphase II
C) prophase I
D) prophase II
E) more than one of these

Question 49

The spread of cancer cells from one site to others in the body is known as _____.

A) cleavage
B) metastasis
C) benign transfer
D) neoplastic movement
E) mutational slippage

Question 50

During which phase of meiosis will the chromosomes appear as a unit of four chromatids?

A) metaphase I
B) telophase II
C) anaphase II
D) prophase I
E) prophase II

Question 51

An oncogene is a _____.

A) normal gene that promotes mitosis
B) gene that codes for a growth factor that stimulates cell division
C) gene that codes for tumor suppressing proteins
D) mutated gene that results in tumor growth
E) mutated gene that results in cell cycle arrest

Question 52

Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because it _____.

A) produces new combinations of alleles on chromosomes
B) causes separation of homologous chromosomes
C) causes separation of sister chromatids
D) results in the production of haploid gametes
E) aligns homologous chromosomes so that they can be separated in anaphase II

Question 53

Which is a characteristic of malignant cells?

A) abnormal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
B) normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
C) abnormal plasma membrane and normal cytoplasm; normal cell division
D) normal plasma membrane and abnormal cytoplasm; abnormal cell division
E) normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; normal cell division

Question 54

Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces _____.

A) two diploid cells
B) four diploid cells
C) four haploid cells
D) two haploid cells
E) one triploid cell

Question 55

Asexual reproduction _____.

A) results from fertilization
B) produces genetic clones
C) is more similar to meiosis than mitosis
D) leads to increased genetic variation in offspring
E) involves crossing over

Question 56

Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat to surrounding tissues is termed _____.

A) malignant
B) benign
C) metastatic
D) carcinogenic
E) repressed

Question 57

Accumulations of cells that divide uncontrollably are called ______.

A) oncogenes
B) proto-oncogenes
C) tumor
D) checkpoints
E) descendant cells

Question 58

A chicken somatic cell carries 78 chromosomes. A chicken sperm cell will contain how many chromosomes?

A) 19
B) 39
C) 78
D) 156
E) 312

Question 59

A cell cycle checkpoint at which phase would ensure sufficient nutrients for cell division were available?

A) S
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) G₁ or G₂
E) G₁ or S

Question 60

An important advantage of sexual reproduction is related to _____.

A) increasing production of offspring
B) avoiding predators
C) avoiding harmful mutations
D) producing offspring identical to the parents
E) having two sexes

Question 62

Mutations in genes that control _____ are likely to cause cancer.

A) phenotype expression
B) metabolism
C) ribosomal proteins
D) cell cycle checkpoints
E) telomere shortening

Question 63

The fusion of egg and sperm cells results a(n) _____.

A) zygote
B) embryo
C) gamete
D) germ cell
E) sporophyte

Question 64

In meiosis, _____ are separated during anaphase I, and _____ are separated during anaphase II.

A) heterologous chromosomes; homologous chromosomes
B) homologous chromosomes; homologous chromosomes
C) homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
D) sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
E) sister chromosomes; homologous chromosomes

Question 65

Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because _____.

A) both result in the production of diploid daughter cells
B) both result in the production of haploid daughter cells
C) DNA replication immediately precedes both meiosis II and mitosis
D) homologous chromosomes are separated in meiosis II and mitosis
E) sister chromatids are separated in meiosis II and mitosis

Question 67

Sister chromatids separate during _____ of mitosis and _____ of meiosis.

A) anaphase; anaphase I
B) anaphase; anaphase II
C) anaphase II; anaphase II
D) metaphase; metaphase I
E) metaphase; metaphase II

Question 69

How do microtubules separate chromosomes during anaphase?

A) Microtubules pull chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
B) Microtubules push chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
C) Microtubules push and pull chromosomes to separate poles of the cell.
D) Microtubules attach to telomeres and pull chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
E) Microtubules attach to telomeres and push chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.

Question 70

New alleles arise by _____.

A) crossing over
B) mutation
C) independent assortment
D) sexual reproduction
E) asexual reproduction

Question 71

Meiosis may pause at which point in the cycle?

A) after DNA is replicated in S phase but before meiosis I begins
B) after meiosis I is complete
C) after prophase II
D) before telophase II
E) after prophase I

Question 72

Which statement describes the function of telomeres?

A) Telomeres are DNA segments that encode cell cycle checkpoint proteins.
B) Telomeres are where DNA polymerase binds to initiate DNA replication.
C) Telomeres serve as attachment points where microtubules bind to separate chromosomes during anaphase.
D) Telomeres are added to chromosomes with each round of replication to increase DNA stability.
E) Telomeres protect the coding regions of chromosomes because chromosomes are shortened with each round of replication.