Deck 18: Nutrition Intervention

Question 1

The two interrelated components of nutrition education are ____.

A)monitoring and evaluation
B)examining and supervision
C)planning and implementation
D)observation and modification

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Solving problems that interfere with the nutrition care plan is an example of ____. ​

A)food/nutrient delivery
B)nutrition education
C)nutrition counseling
D)coordination of nutrition care

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which part of the SOAP note would include recommendations? ​

A)​S
B)​O
C)​A
D)​P

Answer 3

D

Question 4

What type of nutrition intervention provides referrals to local agencies and arranges transfer of nutrition care to another location?

A)nutrition counseling
B)coordination of nutrition care
C)nutrition education
D)nutrition delivery

Question 5

The "P" of PES stands for ____. ​

A)problem
B)prescription
C)plan
D)possible cause

Question 6

In which section of ADIME would the treatment goals and expected outcomes be found? ​

A)​A
B)​D
C)​I
D)​ME

Question 7

What information is included in the A section of the ADIME documentation format? ​

A)nutrition diagnoses
B)expected outcomes
C)relevant assessment results
D)changes to the care plan

Question 8

Nutrition education allows a patient to ____. ​

A)evaluate the effectiveness of his nutrition care plan
B)determine whether his health plan needs to be updated
C)decide if he needs a referral to another health professional
D)learn about the dietary factors that affect his medical condition

Question 9

Which element of nutrition interventions would be accomplished while planning nutrition care?

A)documenting the care plan in the medical record
B)individualizing treatment as warranted
C)consulting dietetics practice guidelines
D)discussing the care plan with the patient

Question 10

Providing information about a modified diet is an example of ____. ​

A)food/nutrient delivery
B)nutrition education
C)nutrition counseling
D)coordination of nutrition care

Question 11

What data is included in the O section of the SOAP note? ​

A)the chief medical problem
B)referrals to appropriate agencies
C)the nutrition prescription ​
D)anthropometric data

Question 12

What does the "S" stand for in the SOAP note charting format? ​

A)symptom
B)standard
C)subjective
D)selective

Question 13

A document or electronic file used to record a client's history, assessment, treatment, and results of therapy is a(n)____. ​

A)medical record
B)informal record
C)diagnosis
D)nutrition care plan

Question 14

Which section of the ADIME format would contain PES statements? ​

A)​A
B)​D
C)​I
D)​ME

Question 15

In what section of an ADIME chart note would the dietitian record his or her plans for treating the patient's nutrition problems?

A)​A
B)​D
C)​I
D)​ME

Question 16

The ADIME format for documenting nutrition care ____. ​

A)closely reflects the nutrition care process
B)is the oldest charting method for nutrition care used
C)uses a "D" to stand for "diet prescription"
D)focuses on subjective information

Question 17

The "I" of ADIME stands for ____. ​

A)intervention
B)implementation
C)integration
D)insurance

Question 18

Which statement describes an important benefit of follow-up care? ​

A)It allows evaluation and, if necessary, modification of the nutrition care plan.
B)It allows updating of basic patient data such as address and phone number.
C)It is typically required by insurance companies to qualify for payment.
D)It allows clinicians to sharpen their skills.

Question 19

Electronic data systems used to house medical records are characterized by ____. ​

A)a lack of popularity among health care facilities
B)reliance on handwritten chart notes
C)flexibility in language used
D)standardized templates

Question 20

Mike needs to make long-term changes to his diet because of a chronic illness. What approach would be most successful in helping Mike implement long-term dietary changes? ​

A)D etermine Mike's readiness to change.
B)E mphasize what to avoid, rather than what to eat.
C)S uggest only five to six changes at a time.
D)D raw up the plan, leaving little room for change or suggestions.

Question 21

Indirect calorimetry is most ideal for which group of patients? ​

A)bedridden patients
B)children
C)ambulatory patients
D)obese patients

Question 22

When a regular diet fails to meet the nutrient needs of a client, a ____ is used. ​

A)standard diet
B)nutrition care plan
C)modified diet
D)nursing diagnosis

Question 23

One of the characteristics of a standard diet is that it ____. ​

A)results in reduced intake of fat and saturated fat
B)includes a limited number of foods
C)meets the nutrient needs of a normal, healthy individual
D)is unlikely to provoke intolerances

Question 24

After surgery, the physician ordered Tina to be put on a clear liquid diet. The first food Tina would receive could be ____. ​

A)bread
B)eggs
C)gelatin
D)milk

Question 25

Liquid diets are often prescribed ____. ​

A)following oral or facial surgeries
B)for individuals with edema
C)based on personal preference
D)to assist with weight loss

Question 26

Which food could be included in a blenderized liquid diet? ​

A)apricots
B)Swiss cheese
C)yogurt
D)corn

Question 27

What describes a disadvantage of using indirect calorimetry? ​

A)It requires certification and advanced training.
B)It causes pain for the patient.
C)It is labor intensive.
D)It requires at least 24 hours for accurate results.

Question 28

What is the most accurate method to determine resting metabolic rate? ​

A)Harris-Benedict equation
B)Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
C)indirect calorimetry
D)bomb calorimeter

Question 29

Jackie is preparing to undergo a colonoscopy in the hospital. What would be the most appropriate diet for Jackie? ​

A)blenderized diet
B)clear liquid diet
C)high kcalorie-high protein diet
D)low sodium diet

Question 30

What is the most accurate method to determine kcalorie needs in overweight or obese patients who are not critically ill? ​

A)Harris-Benedict equation
B)Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
C)indirect calorimetry
D)bomb calorimeter

Question 31

The final result of indirect calorimetry is to determine the ____. ​

A)amount of energy the patient needs to take in per 24 hours
B)number of kcalories burned during a period of study
C)factors associated with illness that contribute to high energy intake
D)adjustments to make in the patient's diet to improve carbohydrate intake

Question 32

The clinical dietitian uses ____ and stress factors to estimate energy needs. ​

A)RMR
B)PES
C)CBW
D)IBW

Question 33

Which food can be included in a mechanically-altered, ground, or minced diet? ​

A)cereal bars
B)apricot nectar
C)pretzels
D)granola

Question 34

Which food could be included in a clear liquid diet? ​

A)cream of potato soup
B)tea
C)ice cream
D)orange juice

Question 35

Use the Harris-Benedict equation (presented below)to estimate daily energy needs for a 32-year-old woman who is 165 cm tall and weighs 46 kg. Use a stress factor of 1.2. ​ RMR = 655.1 + [9.563 ×   weight (kg)] + [1.85 ×   height (cm)] - [4.676 ×   age (years)]

A)1250 kcal
B)1500 kcal
C)1750 kcal
D)2000 kcal

Question 36

Health practitioners should monitor the patient's food intake and ____ and reevaluate energy needs regularly during the hospital stay.

A)body weight
B)height
C)blood pressure
D)albumin levels

Question 37

A quick way of estimating a person's energy needs is to multiply ____ by a factor appropriate for the patient's medical condition. ​

A)24-hour kcalorie intake
B)body weight
C)waist circumference
D)percent of body fat

Question 38

A patient on a sodium-controlled diet has been observed ordering Chinese take-out only a few hours after his nutrition consult. The patient reports that "a little salt won't  hurt me." The dietitian ____. ​

A)decides that the patient needs a stricter sodium-controlled diet
B)concludes that providing a list of high sodium foods will help him
C)suggests that he also add an exercise plan and more fiber to his current diet
D)concludes that the patient is not ready to learn and implement the diet changes

Question 39

Why are diets for dysphagia highly individualized? ​

A)because of best practice standards
B)because swallowing difficulties can vary greatly over time
C)to challenge the patient to improve swallowing ability
D)to eliminate patient boredom

Question 40

A ____ diet is changed to meet the nutritional and medical needs of a client.

A)modified
B)standard
C)progressive
D)liquid

Question 41

In which case would a tube feeding be preferred over parenteral nutrition? ​

A)if the patient has an infection
B)if the patient needs extra kcalories
C)if the GI tract is functioning normally
D)if the patient is deficient in vitamin A

Question 42

Your client is on a 1200-kcalorie, 2 gram sodium diet. You find each diet in the diet manual but not the combined diet. Where could you best find information regarding this diet? ​

A)the National Formulary
B)the client's physician
C)the client's dietitian
D)the hospital pharmacy

Question 43

In most cases, on a sodium-controlled diet, the sodium level is restricted to ____ milligrams per day. ​

A)250-500
B)500-1000
C)2000-3000
D)4000-5000

Question 44

What is a benefit of using a selective menu? ​

A)Patients can decide whether or not to follow their nutrition plans.
B)Patients become more familiar with the foods included in modified diets.
C)The foodservice department saves money because fewer foods are served.
D)Risks associated with noncompliance are reduced.

Question 45

Mrs. Greenbaum is suffering from kidney disease and experiencing edema. Which modified diet would be appropriate for her based on this information? ​

A)fat-controlled diet
B)sodium-controlled diet
C)high-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D)liquid diet

Question 46

The process of changing the client's diet as his/her tolerance to food permits is called ____. ​

A)NPO
B)diet progression
C)nutrition education
D)a manual diet

Question 47

What is a problem associated with the use of selective menus?

A)Patients are unable to get the foods they really prefer.
B)Patients may be too ill or too disinterested to make menu selections.
C)Patients often get bored with options.
D)Patients may order far more food than they can consume.

Question 48

Delivery of nutrient solutions directly into the vein is called ____. ​

A)enteral nutrition
B)modified nutrition
C)parenteral nutrition
D)tube feeding

Question 49

For which client would diet progression be appropriate? ​

A)Betty, who just had gallbladder surgery and is being discharged on a standard diet
B)Jim, who has been on a clear liquid diet and now is ready to start eating solid foods again
C)Susan, who has been diagnosed with celiac disease and must exclude gluten from her diet
D)David, whose cancer has returned and has been transferred to hospice care

Question 50

The nurse is preparing one of her patients for lunchtime. She opens the tray and sees the patient's pureed food. The nurse should ____. ​

A)tell the patient, "I hope you know what this is... it all looks like mush to me"
B)ask visitors to leave, as they are distracting the patient
C)ask the patient if he needs help with his meal
D)turn off the lights and turn on the television

Question 51

Which food would be permitted on a fiber-restricted diet? ​

A)whole-wheat bread
B)chunky peanut butter
C)buttermilk
D)winter squash

Question 52

A client has just been admitted to your unit at 11:30 PM on Saturday. He states he is hungry and wants something to eat. You note that he is on a fat-controlled diet, but have questions regarding what exactly is allowed. Your best resource at this time of night is the ____.

A)diet manual
B)client's physician
C)client's dietitian
D)nursing supervisor

Question 53

Mr. Whitaker is 5'8", weighs 145 pounds, and has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer. His hematocrit is 28 percent and his albumin level is 3.1 g/dL. Which diet would assist in improving his nutrition status? ​

A)mechanical soft diet
B)fat-controlled diet
C)high-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D)lactose-free diet

Question 54

A nurse is receiving new orders written in the patient chart. The order reads, "NPO," which means that the patient will receive ____. ​

A)only beverages and medications
B)only medications
C)nothing by mouth
D)all foods orally

Question 55

What food would most likely be included in a high kcalorie-high protein diet? ​

A)cranberry juice
B)pancakes
C)coleslaw
D)boiled potatoes

Question 56

Most foods included in a fat-controlled diet have less than ____ gram of fat per serving. ​

A)1
B)1/2
C)1/4
D)1/10

Question 57

A sodium-controlled diet is often used to prevent fluid retention and may be recommended for the treatment of ____. ​

A)hyperglycemia
B)congestive heart failure
C)cancer
D)hyperthyroidism

Question 58

In which case would a patient most likely have an order to be NPO? ​

A)a patient who had knee surgery yesterday
B)a patient preparing for endoscopy
C)a patient who is 85 years old
D)a patient who is obese

Question 59

What food would most likely be restricted in a low residue diet? ​

A)fish
B)winter squash
C)pudding
D)bananas

Question 60

Which patient would most likely need a low-fiber diet? ​

A)a patient in rehabilitation after a burn injury
B)a patient who tolerates a clear liquid diet
C)a patient who is getting ready for surgery
D)a patient who has an allergy to wheat

Question 62

Blood antibody testing for food allergies ____.

A)is the most accurate method
B)predicts lack of allergy better than actual allergy
C)should be considered with other types of evidence
D)is rarely clinically meaningful

Question 63

What intervention would most likely help to improve intake for a hospitalized patient at mealtime? ​

A)​S uggest foods that require little effort to eat.
B)​T urn down the lights in the room.
C)​P lace the patient's bed in the highest position.
D)​S elect all foods for the patient from his menu.

Question 64

What information is included in a diet manual? ​

A)kcalorie counts for patients recovering from surgery
B)the exact items to avoid when a patient is NPO
C)preparation methods to include in modified diets
D)food choices that the patient is most likely to eat

Question 66

Because allergic responses may persist after allergens are removed from the diet, ____. ​

A)elimination testing is no longer used
B)patients must be cautioned to be scrupulously careful with their diets
C)patients are generally inaccurate in identifying foods to which they are allergic
D)an elemental formula diet may be needed to stabilize the patient

Question 68

A positive skin-prick test result correctly identifies an allergen ____ percent of the time. ​

A)50 to 60
B)60 to 70
C)70 to 80
D)80 to 90

Question 69

What refers to a systemic (whole-body)reaction characterized by breathing difficulty and a dangerous fall in blood pressure? ​

A)hives
B)oral allergy syndrome
C)anaphylaxis
D)acute allergic response

Question 71

When properly performed, ____ is/are the gold standard for diagnosis of food allergies. ​

A)oral food challenges
B)skin testing
C)blood antibody testing
D)food elimination diets

Question 72

Breaded meats and vegetables are known to be a hidden source of ____. ​

A)eggs
B)milk
C)peanuts
D)shellfish

Question 73

Elemental formula diets ____. ​

A)contain no intact proteins
B)contain only one type of protein
C)are used to provoke allergic responses
D)help identify "safe" foods

Question 76

A negative skin-prick test result ____. ​

A)is typically incorrect
B)indicates it is very unlikely that an allergy exists
C)is valid for physical but not psychological symptoms
D)is rarely clinically meaningful