Deck 17: Nutrition Care and Assessment

Question 1

Clinical judgments about actual or potential health problems that provide the basis for selecting appropriate nursing interventions are called ____. ​

A)potential diagnoses
B)nursing diagnoses
C)treatment objectives
D)nursing goals

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Maisie Green is a frail, elderly widow who lives in a nursing home and has been confined to her bed for some time. What is most likely to increase her metabolic stress and cause increased kcalorie and protein needs?

A)weakened immunity
B)medications causing GI discomfort
C)poor emotional health
D)pressure sores

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A nutrition care plan is ____. ​

A)the client's diet prescription ordered by the physician
B)the dietitian's strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs
C)the nurse's documentation of how well the client is eating
D)nutritional formulas showing minimum daily requirements

Answer 3

B

Question 4

A patient who has had surgery for colostomy placement has been put on bowel rest and only has an IV for nutrition. In what way would these treatments affect this patient's nutrition status? ​

A)reduced food intake
B)impaired digestion
C)altered nutrient excretion
D)impaired absorption

Question 5

Impaired nutrient digestion and absorption that affects nutritional status would most likely be manifested as ____. ​

A)insufficient excretion of digestive enzymes
B)anorexia due to illness
C)prolonged immobilization
D)use of diuretics

Question 6

Coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health care professionals are called ____.

A)critical pathways
B)clinical integrative plans
C)diagnosis related groups
D)treatment plans

Question 7

A patient's ability to feed him or herself represents which type of data? ​

A)admission data
B)anthropometric data
C)functional assessment data
D)laboratory test results

Question 8

Which statement most accurately describes nutrition assessments? ​

A)​S creenings should be conducted within 24 hours of admission.
B)​S creening questions are the same from facility to facility.
C)​A ssessments must be conducted by physicians.
D)​L aboratory tests are not included.

Question 9

What is an example of a screening tool to assess nutritional status in a newly admitted patient? ​

A)Subjective Global Assessment
B)Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool
C)Continuity Assessment and Record Evaluation (CARE)
D)Mini Objective Nutrition Evaluation

Question 10

Changes in hydration , as well as diarrhea  due to illness, affect nutrition status primarily by ____. ​

A)reducing nutrient and food intake
B)altering metabolism and excretion
C)impairing digestion and absorption
D)impairing cognition

Question 11

The physician asks the staff to encourage the patient to eat at all meals. Who is most often responsible for doing this? ​

A)the nurse
B)the dietitian
C)the dietetic technician
D)the social worker

Question 12

A brief assessment for quickly identifying clients at risk for malnutrition so that they can receive complete nutrition assessments is called a ____. ​

A)nutrition questionnaire
B)health history
C)health screening
D)nutrition screening

Question 13

Which health care professional is expected to have extensive knowledge about foods and human nutrition?

A)physician
B)registered dietitian
C)nurse
D)social worker

Question 14

In a health care facility, who holds the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all the patient's nutritional needs are met? ​

A)clinical dietitians
B)physicians
C)nurses
D)pharmacists

Question 15

Estimates indicate that approximately ____ percent of hospitalized patients are malnourished. ​

A)15 to 60
B)35 to 70
C)45 to 80
D)50 to 90

Question 16

Specific instructions regarding dietary management for a patient are known as ____. ​

A)clinical pathways
B)nutrition care plans
C)diet orders
D)nutrition screenings

Question 17

Which statement is accurate regarding malnutrition among hospitalized patients? ​

A)Although common among chronic care patients, malnutrition is rare among acute care patients.
B)Malnutrition among hospitalized patients is extremely rare and an indication of seriously flawed care.
C)Only patients who are terminally ill and expected to die within months are at risk of malnutrition.
D)Even acute care patients who are not malnourished upon admission may become malnourished.

Question 18

A new patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Who is most likely to visit the patient to compile a list of his or her food preferences? ​

A)nurse
B)physician
C)dietitian
D)dietetic technician

Question 19

Patient height and weight represent which type of data? ​

A)admission data
B)anthropometric data
C)functional assessment data
D)laboratory test results

Question 20

The provision of a client's nutrient and nutrition education needs based on a complete nutrition assessment is ____.

A)medical nutrition therapy
B)the nutrition care process
C)a nutrition screening
D)a medical history

Question 21

An extensive, accurate log of foods eaten over a period of several days or weeks is called a ____. ​

A)food-frequency checklist
B)food record
C)usual intake
D)24-hour recall

Question 22

What best describes a food record? ​

A)a survey of food consumed in the past year
B)a written account of food consumed during a specified period
C)direct observation of how much a person eats
D)an interview discussing food intake in the last day

Question 23

Head circumference is used to ____. ​

A)monitor infant growth
B)help detect overnutrition
C)evaluate muscle size
D)calculate infant BMI

Question 24

If a client is asked to recount everything eaten in a typical day, the assessor is using ____ to collect the data. ​

A)a food record
B)a kcalorie count
C)a 24-hour recall
D)direct observation

Question 25

What technique is preferred when using the 24-hour recall method?

A)multiple-pass method
B)direct observation
C)use of a checklist
D)free recall

Question 26

The neuropsychological problems assessed in the Mini Nutritional Assessment include ____. ​

A)dementia
B)depression
C)anxiety
D)schizophrenia

Question 27

An individual with a body mass of ____ would receive one point for BMI in the Mini Nutritional Assessment. ​

A)less than 19
B)19 to 21
C)21 to 22
D)23 or higher

Question 28

An example of a behavioral-environmental diagnosis given following a nutrition assessment might be ____. ​

A)altered blood potassium levels
B)inadequate energy intake
C)unintended weight gain
D)disordered eating pattern

Question 29

A nutritional assessment involves ____. ​

A)collecting data and using it to evaluate a patient's nutrition status
B)implementing a nutrition care plan
C)identifying existing and potential nutrition problems
D)obtaining approval from insurance providers

Question 30

Lee is a 78-year-old woman with mild loss of muscle mass, loss of about 7 percent of body weight over the past 6 months, and mild feeding difficulties associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Using the Subjective Global Assessment, she is most likely to be classified in which category? ​

A)well nourished
B)mild malnutrition
C)moderate malnutrition
D)severe malnutrition

Question 31

A 24-hour recall is used to collect a food and nutrition history. The client states that she didn't eat breakfast. She had a soft drink and an apple for lunch, and for dinner, she had a slice of pizza. What is the best question the health care professional could ask next regarding this finding? ​

A)"Is this a usual day's food intake?"
B)"What was on the slice of pizza?"
C)"What kinds of foods do you like to eat?"
D)"Are you on a busy schedule?"

Question 32

Growth charts with BMI-for-age percentiles can be used to assess risk of underweight using the ____ percentile as the cutoff.

A)5th
B)10th
C)15th
D)20th

Question 33

For children, a sharp drop in a previously steady growth pattern suggests ____. ​

A)malnutrition
B)obesity
C)a growth spurt
D)a medical error

Question 34

What is a social factor that can affect food choices?

A)methamphetamine use
B)dependence on a family member to prepare food
C)mental illness
D)prescription medications

Question 35

Which calculation is most useful in evaluating weight loss in an overweight person? ​

A)UBW
B)IBW
C)%UBW
D)%IBW

Question 36

What is an example of food and nutrition history information that would be included as part of the nutrition assessment? ​

A)ongoing medical treatments
B)high educational level
C)recent weight changes
D)low socioeconomic status

Question 37

A registered dietitian performed a Subjective Global Assessment on a newly admitted patient to the hospital. The dietitian gives several "C" ratings for the patient's assessment variables. This most likely means that  the patient is  ____. ​

A)obese and needs to lose weight
B)well nourished
C)at risk of malnutrition
D)severely malnourished

Question 38

Why might food frequency questionnaires be less accurate than 24-hour recalls? ​

A)There can be too many or too few foods to choose from.
B)Dietary supplements can't be included.
C)They typically list only common foods.
D)It may be difficult to estimate average portion sizes of foods eaten less frequently.

Question 39

Danny is undergoing a health assessment. What should the clinician do that would most likely result in an accurate assessment of Danny's weight? ​

A)Ask Danny how much he weighs.
B)Use a scale that is calibrated and checked for accuracy.
C)Measure Danny's weight three times and take an average of the measurements.
D)Use a bathroom scale to weigh Danny.

Question 40

What is a limitation to the value of a 24-hour recall? ​

A)​T he process is time consuming.
B)​C lients often keep poor records.
C)​T he method excludes recording of beverages.
D)​A  24-hour period may not be typical.

Question 41

Immunity against a specific antigen is called ____ immunity. ​

A)adaptive
B)innate
C)systemic
D)complementary

Question 42

Which nutrition assessment technique is a measure of protein status? ​

A)serum albumin
B)body mass index
C)mean corpuscular volume
D)plasma creatinine

Question 43

A BMI-for-age above the ____ percentile indicates that the child may be overweight. ​

A)25th
B)50th
C)75th
D)85th

Question 44

Which test is primarily used for monitoring kidney function? ​

A)glycated hemoglobin
B)C-reactive protein
C)blood urea nitrogen
D)alanine aminotransferase

Question 45

An individual who is at risk of moderate malnutrition has a %UBW of ____ percent. ​

A)​
B)70 to 75
C)75 to 84
D)85 to 90

Question 46

Fluid accumulation typically results in ____. ​

A)deceptively low lab results
B)deceptively high lab results
C)unintentional weight loss
D)unintentional muscle loss

Question 47

The half-life of albumin is approximately ____. ​

A)12 hours
B)2 to 3 days
C)8 to 10 days
D)14 to 20 days

Question 48

Large globular proteins produced by B cells that function as antibodies are known as ____. ​

A)antigens
B)immunoglobulins
C)antibodies
D)lysozymes

Question 49

Physical signs of fluid retention include ____. ​

A)dark-colored urine
B)reduced skin tension
C)facial puffiness
D)thirst

Question 50

Mrs. Falwell is 5'4" and weighs 110 lbs. During the interview, she mentions she has lost "a lot of weight" over the past 5 months. She usually weighs 135 lbs. What is her %UBW?

A)25
B)81
C)120
D)123

Question 51

Elevated levels of ____ may indicate liver damage.

A)lactate dehydrogenase
B)mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
C)mean corpuscular volume
D)alanine aminotransferase

Question 52

A serum albumin of 2.5 g/dL in an adult male with malnutrition suggests ____. ​

A)iron deficiency
B)a normal finding
C)liver damage
D)slow to respond improvement

Question 53

Which test has different ranges of normal values for males and females? ​

A)hematocrit
B)mean corpuscular volume
C)mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
D)white blood cell (WBC)count

Question 54

Where do clinical signs of malnutrition appear most rapidly? ​

A)hair
B)eyes
C)urinary tract
D)cardiovascular system

Question 55

What %IBW indicates a risk for moderate malnutrition? ​

A)90 to 100
B)85 to 90
C)80 to 85
D)70 to 79

Question 56

Which protein is the most abundant plasma protein? ​

A)transferrin
B)albumin
C)transthyretin
D)retinol-binding protein

Question 57

White blood cells that have the ability to engulf and destroy pathogens are known as ____. ​

A)phagocytes
B)immunoglobulins
C)lymphocytes
D)lysozymes

Question 58

After blood is centrifuged to remove cells, the fluid that remains is called ____. ​

A)plasma
B)serum
C)electrolytes
D)platelets

Question 59

What clinical effects of PEM would most likely be seen in an individual's hair? ​

A)hair falling out easily
B)thickened hair
C)corkscrew hair
D)shiny hair

Question 60

An individual who is at risk of mild malnutrition has a %UBW of ____ percent.

A)​
B)75 to 84
C)85 to 95
D)> 95

Question 62

Which type of cell releases proteins that damage parasites? ​

A)basophils
B)monocytes
C)eosinophils
D)neutrophils

Question 64

A foreign antigen has entered the body, which has elicited the immune response. A helper T cell binds to an antigen fragment on an antigen-presenting cell. What happens next? ​

A)B cells produce more antibodies.
B)​A  cytotoxic T cell destroys the antigen.
C)​F ree antibodies attach to the antigens.
D)​A  macrophage engulfs the target antigen.

Question 68

A non-specific response to illness or injury is called ____. ​

A)an allergy
B)cell-mediated immunity
C)humoral immunity
D)inflammation

Question 69

An example of an antigen is a ____.

A)monocyte
B)NK cell
C)virus
D)T cell

Question 77

Which tissue is a type of lymphoid tissue? ​

A)spleen
B)lungs
C)appendix
D)brain