Deck 9: Cellular and Physiological Response to Injury the Role of the Immune System

Question 1

What is the name of the disorder that results from prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoid hormones?

A) anaphylactic shock
B) Cushing's syndrome
C) hyperemia
D) severe combined immune deficiency
E) serum sickness

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What is amyloid?

A) connective tissue associated with cancer
B) diseased connective tissue
C) starch-like substance present in diseased tissues
D) scar tissue associated with the liver
E) an enzyme that digests scar tissue

Answer 2

C

Question 3

What is apoptosis?

A) spread of cancer cells
B) genetically programmed cell death
C) an antibody to an exotoxin
D) nonvascularized location in the body
E) reduction in size of muscle cells

Answer 3

B

Question 4

What do chemotaxins attract to the site of injury?

A) interleukins and thromboxanes
B) prostaglandins and histamines
C) neutrophils and monocytes
D) T cells and B lymphocytes
E) COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes

Question 5

Which are the two central organs of the immune system?

A) spleen and tonsils
B) bone marrow and thymus gland
C) gut-associated lymphatic tissue and bronchial-associated lymphatic tissue
D) appendix and spleen
E) bone marrow and lymph nodes

Question 6

Hyaline deposits are a mixture of what types of compounds?

A) collagen, fibrin, amyloid
B) fatty acids, connective tissue, epithelium
C) connective tissue, scar tissue, cholesterol
D) scar tissue, fibrin, fatty acids
E) collagen, cholesterol, epithelium

Question 7

Which organ is responsible for destruction of old RBCs and is a major site for the initiation of the immune response?

A) spleen
B) liver
C) bone marrow
D) tonsils
E) thymus

Question 8

Where do all cells of the immune system originate?

A) lymph glands
B) the liver
C) Peyer's patches
D) stem cells within the spleen
E) stem cells within bone marrow

Question 9

Necrosis refers to the cellular changes that occur during:

A) metaplasia
B) dysplasia
C) cell death
D) cell growth
E) metastasis

Question 10

Which of the following substances is applied to inanimate objects to kill any microbes?

A) antiseptic
B) antibiotic
C) betadine
D) disinfectant
E) detergent

Question 11

What is the term for immunity produced due to exposure to an antigen (infection or vaccination)?

A) enhanced immunity
B) boosted immunity
C) inherited immunity
D) passive immunity
E) active immunity

Question 12

Where are Peyer's patches located?

A) spleen
B) throat
C) stomach
D) small intestine
E) large intestine

Question 13

What does the prognosis of a disease refer to?

A) the mortality rates of the disease
B) the degree of infectiousness
C) the ability of the disease to spread
D) the expected or usual outcome of the disease
E) the cause of the disease

Question 14

The immune system is typically divided into which two major categories?

A) effective and noneffective
B) innate and acquired
C) mature and immature
D) natural and artificial
E) normal and auto-immune

Question 15

Which of the following are chemical mediators that direct vasodilation and vascular permeability?

A) arginine and bicarbonate
B) sodium and fibrinogen
C) histamine and nitric oxide
D) interferon and ammonia
E) betadine and chemotaxin

Question 16

The study of the disruption of normal physiologic processes is referred to as:

A) epidemiology
B) pathogenesis
C) physiology
D) pathophysiology
E) pathology

Question 17

An increase in cell size is referred to as:

A) atrophy
B) hyperplasia
C) apoptosis
D) metaplasia
E) hypertrophy

Question 18

Free radicals are chemically unstable and searching for additional:

A) electrons
B) hydrogen ions
C) protons
D) neutrons
E) carbon atoms

Question 19

An insufficient oxygen supply (ischemia) interferes with cellular:

A) apoptosis
B) mitosis
C) metabolism
D) differentiation
E) membrane integrity

Question 20

The study of the distribution of disease within populations is referred to as:

A) epidemiology
B) pathogenesis
C) physiology
D) pathophysiology
E) morbidity

Question 21

Which gland(s) does Addison's autoimmune disease target?

A) thyroid
B) thymus
C) pancreas
D) pituitary
E) pituitary

Question 22

Which of the following statements is true of etiology?

A) It is the description and identification of the cause of disease.
B) It is the description of serum sickness.
C) It is the study of the disruption of normal physiologic processes.
D) It is the study of allergic diseases.
E) It is the study of the distribution of disease within populations.

Question 23

In liver disease, which of the following pairs of enzymes are present in abnormally high levels in the blood?

A) COX-1 and COX-2
B) prostaglandin and glucokinase
C) glucose-6-phosphotase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase
E) phenylalanine hydroxylase and transaminase

Question 24

What kind of transplant rejection occurs in the bone marrow, but not in the heart or kidney transplants?

A) host-versus-host (HVH)
B) host-versus-graft (HVG)
C) second-set rejection
D) graft-versus-host (GVH)
E) graft-versus-graft (GVG)

Question 25

Which vitamin is needed to make collagen during wound repair?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B₅
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E

Question 26

Mrs. P is an 85-year-old female who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The wound nurse was doing her rounds and noticed that Mrs. P had developed an open ulcer with a partial-thickness loss of dermis and a red-pink wound bed on the side of her hip. She is 5'2" and weighs 52 kilograms with no known gastrointestinal or autoimmune issues. The wound nurse schedules a nutrition consultation for Mrs. P and discusses her findings with you.
What type of wound has Mrs. P likely developed?

A) stage I pressure ulcer
B) stage II pressure ulcer
C) stage III pressure ulcer
D) stage IV peptic ulcer
E) stage I gangrenous ulcer

Question 27

Identify the term used for a tissue that is transplanted between two genetically identical individuals.

A) allograft
B) xenograft
C) intergraft
D) autograft
E) isograft

Question 28

Which of the following terms refers to tissue transplantation between individuals from different species?

A) xenograft
B) autograft
C) isograft
D) allograft
E) mesograft

Question 29

What type of hypersensitivity reaction involves B lymphocytes?

A) delayed hypersensitivity reactions
B) immediate hypersensitivity reactions
C) acquired hypersensitivity reactions
D) external hypersensitivity reactions
E) internal hypersensitivity reactions

Question 30

What is the term used for ineffective wound healing?

A) epithelial dissonance
B) coagulation
C) apoptosis
D) eschar
E) dehiscence

Question 31

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced during secondary immune responses?

A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA
E) IgD

Question 32

What is the most common cause of adhesions?

A) abdominal surgery
B) pneumonia
C) obesity
D) diabetes
E) rheumatoid arthritis

Question 33

Identify a mediator that influences platelet aggregation and increases vascular permeability.

A) leukotrienes
B) histamines
C) prostaglandins
D) interleukins
E) lactoferrins

Question 34

The chief drawback of attenuated vaccines is:

A) immunosuppression
B) reversion to the pathogenic form
C) death
D) autoimmune disease
E) chronic inflammatory response

Question 35

Mrs. P is an 85-year-old female who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The wound nurse was doing her rounds and noticed that Mrs. P had developed an open ulcer with a partial-thickness loss of dermis and a red-pink wound bed on the side of her hip. She is 5'2" and weighs 52 kilograms with no known gastrointestinal or autoimmune issues. The wound nurse schedules a nutrition consultation for Mrs. P and discusses her findings with you.
How many kilocalories per kilogram of bodyweight does she need to heal?

A) 10-15 kcal/kg
B) 15-18 kcal/kg
C) 20-25 kcal/kg
D) 25-28 kcal/kg
E) 30-35 kcal/kg

Question 36

Mrs. P is an 85-year-old female who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The wound nurse was doing her rounds and noticed that Mrs. P had developed an open ulcer with a partial-thickness loss of dermis and a red-pink wound bed on the side of her hip. She is 5'2" and weighs 52 kilograms with no known gastrointestinal or autoimmune issues. The wound nurse schedules a nutrition consultation for Mrs. P and discusses her findings with you.
How much water should Mrs. P drink each day to give her the best opportunity to heal?

A) at least 10 mL/kg
B) about 20 mL/kg
C) at least 30 mL/kg
D) about 50 mL/kg
E) at least 75 mL/kg

Question 37

What does lactoferrin do?

A) destroys toxic microbes
B) binds iron, thus preventing its use by invading bacteria
C) triggers blood clotting
D) increases vascular permeability
E) releases prostaglandins

Question 38

Mrs. P is an 85-year-old female who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The wound nurse was doing her rounds and noticed that Mrs. P had developed an open ulcer with a partial-thickness loss of dermis and a red-pink wound bed on the side of her hip. She is 5'2" and weighs 52 kilograms with no known gastrointestinal or autoimmune issues. The wound nurse schedules a nutrition consultation for Mrs. P and discusses her findings with you.
Which supplement could benefit wound healing by increasing collagen deposition, improving nitrogen balance, and enhancing several parameters of immune function?

A) arginine
B) lysine
C) vitamin E
D) vitamin K
E) iron

Question 39

Which of the following compounds is the preferred fuel for enterocytes, lymphocytes, and macrophages?

A) glutamine
B) glucose
C) ascorbic acid
D) omega-3 fatty acids
E) omega-6 fatty acids

Question 40

Mrs. P is an 85-year-old female who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The wound nurse was doing her rounds and noticed that Mrs. P had developed an open ulcer with a partial-thickness loss of dermis and a red-pink wound bed on the side of her hip. She is 5'2" and weighs 52 kilograms with no known gastrointestinal or autoimmune issues. The wound nurse schedules a nutrition consultation for Mrs. P and discusses her findings with you.
How many grams of protein per kilogram of bodyweight should be recommended for wound healing?

A) 0.3-0.55 g/kg
B) 0.6-0.82 g/kg
C) 0.8-1.0 g/kg
D) 1.25-2.0 g/kg
E) 2.5-3.0 g/kg

Question 41

Autoimmune diseases have a strong tendency to run in families, with a 40% chance that a family with one affected adult will have another.

Question 42

The primary immune response normally begins with the proliferation of memory cells, which can be sufficient to block infection if virulence of the pathogens is low.

Question 43

Activated mast cells release _____.

Question 44

Monocytes and macrophages are highly specialized cells that ingest and destroy bacteria, aged cells, and neoplastic cells in a process called _____.

Question 45

The clinical course or _____ includes impact and duration of the disease.

Question 46

Atrophy results from an increase in cell size.

Question 47

Initially, _____ were called lymphokines because the initial discoveries were substances produced by lymphocytes.

Question 48

T lymphocytes were named for the _____, the site where they mature and differentiate.

Question 49

When fibrinogen increases, clotting of erythrocytes _____, which affects the rate of _____.

Question 50

Epidemiology provides data for outcome measures such as morbidity and mortality, and identifies risk factors associated with disease.

Question 51

Cardiac, skeletal, and neurological cells can be restored after injury if optimal conditions are maintained.

Question 52

Females are more likely to have immune deficiencies because many such deficiencies involve recessive genes, often on the Y chromosome.

Question 53

Sensitization is the production of IgE antibodies after exposure to an allergen.

Question 54

_____ is deranged cellular growth and can result in abnormalities of size, shape, or function.

Question 55

A common cellular response to injury and disease is deposition of a substance called hyaline within and between the cells.

Question 56

_____ refers to the expected or usual outcome of the disease.

Question 57

Immune cells are often referred to as erythrocytes.

Question 58

Material that accumulates in tissue spaces is called exudate.

Question 59

The body reacts to injury with both a _____ and a cellular response.

Question 60

Pigment accumulation after cell injury can include _____ and derivatives of _____.

Question 61

List the different classes of interferons.

Question 62

In _____ syndrome, WBCs invade and destroy glands that produce moisture, resulting in dry mouth and dry eyes.

Question 63

Describe active immunization.

Question 64

_____ vaccines are live mutants that have lost their pathogenicity while retaining immunogenicity and provide more natural protection.

Question 65

Plasma cells are _____ than B cells and packed full of endoplasmic reticulum to produce _____ at a rate of 30,000 Ig/sec.

Question 66

Protein-energy malnutrition in infancy and early childhood has adverse effects on the _____.

Question 67

Describe the difference between an antigen and an immunogen.

Question 68

_____ occurs when a lymphocyte fails to respond when stimulated by its antigen-specific receptor.

Question 69

Describe the signs and symptoms of inflammation.

Question 70

Define the term metaplasia.

Question 71

Pernicious anemia develops when a(n) _____ reacts with intrinsic factor, resulting in decreased _____ absorption in the small intestine.

Question 72

Long-term use of _____ is associated with many possible side effects, including hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and protein loss or muscle wasting.

Question 73

_____ is a tissue graft from one area to another on the same individual.

Question 74

A(n) _____ is a substance that is specifically bound by an antibody or lymphocytes.

Question 75

Explain etiology of disease.

Question 76

The most severe allergic reaction is _____.

Question 77

Discuss the most common food allergies in the United States.

Question 78

Explain how accurate skin prick tests are for diagnosing allergies

Question 79

Explain the innate immune response.

Question 80

Outline the four basic requirements of an effective immune system.