Deck 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery

Question 1

The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate:

A) body surface area burned
B) depth of tissue destruction
C) length of estimated healing time
D) protocols for burn dressing changes

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Relaxation and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as:

A) arthrodesis
B) cheiloschisis
C) dermachalasis
D) micrognathia

Answer 2

C

Question 3

How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five

Answer 3

C

Question 4

What is the name of the oil that is secreted from glands in the skin?

A) sebum
B) septum
C) sputum
D) stratum

Question 5

What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?

A) debridement
B) defacement
C) degradation
D) dessication

Question 6

Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?

A) apocrine
B) ceruminous
C) merocrine
D) sebaceous

Question 7

Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?

A) basale
B) corneum
C) granulosum
D) lucidum

Question 8

Which term describes the thumb side of the hand?

A) dorsal
B) radial
C) volar
D) ulnar

Question 9

Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:

A) epinephrine
B) mineral oil
C) phenylephrine
D) thrombin

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?

A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
B) Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.
C) Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.
D) Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.

Question 11

What does a mesh graft device do?

A) It attaches a skin graft to the donor site.
B) It expands the size of the skin graft.
C) It slices a split thickness of donor skin.
D) It smoothes the skin graft to prevent bunching up.

Question 12

Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?

A) erythematous first-degree burns
B) denuded areas of third-degree burns
C) blistered superficial second-degree burns
D) charred necrotic tissue in fourth-degree burns

Question 13

Which of the following are oil-producing glands?

A) apocrine
B) ceruminous
C) merocrine
D) sebaceous

Question 14

The dermis and epidermis are components of which body system?

A) cardiovascular
B) integumentary
C) musculoskeletal
D) respiratory

Question 15

Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?

A) basale
B) corneum
C) granulosum
D) lucidum

Question 16

Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?

A) breast
B) hand
C) lip
D) palate

Question 17

In which degree of skin burn does the tissue appear as pearly white or charred and will likely require debridement of eschar?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

Question 18

Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following?

A) breast prolapse
B) cleft lip and palate
C) conjoined fingers
D) drooping and baggy eyelids

Question 19

Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?

A) apocrine
B) ceruminous
C) merocrine
D) sebaceous

Question 20

Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand?

A) dorsal
B) radial
C) volar
D) ulnar

Question 21

For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?

A) cleft lip repair
B) otoplasty for microtia
C) TRAM flap reconstruction
D) fasciectomy for Dupuytren's contracture

Question 22

Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure?

A) centralization of radial dysplasia
B) cheiloplasty
C) mastopexy
D) rhinoplasty

Question 23

A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which anatomic area?

A) areola
B) Cupid's bow
C) mammary crease
D) umbilicus

Question 24

For which procedure would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution?

A) abdominoplasty
B) liposuction
C) mastopexy
D) syndactyly release

Question 25

Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?

A) abdominoplasty
B) blepharoplasty
C) mentoplasty
D) otoplasty

Question 26

Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure?

A) elliptical
B) oblique
C) paramedian
D) Z-shaped

Question 27

Which method of anesthesia is preferred for rhytidectomy procedures?

A) Bier block
B) epidural
C) monitored (MAC)
D) topical

Question 28

The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:

A) chin
B) lower lip
C) upper lip
D) nasal septum

Question 29

Which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) to size?

A) bandage
B) Jorgenson
C) reverse Potts
D) tenotomy

Question 30

What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?

A) contracture
B) dermachalasis
C) polydactyly
D) syndactyly

Question 31

Which cosmetic procedure is performed for micrognathia?

A) abdominoplasty
B) blepharoplasty
C) mentoplasty
D) otoplasty

Question 32

In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?

A) augmentation mammoplasty
B) tumescent liposuction
C) endoscopic brow lift
D) mentoplasty

Question 33

Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during:

A) mastopexy
B) rhinoplasty
C) rhytidectomy
D) blepharoplasty

Question 34

Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?

A) C
B) H
C) U
D) Z

Question 35

For which procedure would the surgeon require a sterile tattoo machine and inks?

A) cleft lip repair
B) endoscopic brow lift
C) nipple reconstruction
D) reduction mammoplasty

Question 36

Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?

A) blepharoplasty
B) cheiloplasty
C) mentoplasty
D) rhytidectomy

Question 37

Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:

A) breasts
B) cheeks
C) eyes
D) nares

Question 38

The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:

A) ear
B) eye
C) hand
D) nose

Question 39

"Cupid's bow" is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?

A) cleft lip repair
B) malar implants
C) nipple recreation
D) syndactyly release

Question 40

Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:

A) malar implants
B) mastopexy
C) mentoplasty
D) marsupialization

Question 41

Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?

A) carpals
B) metacarpals
C) phalanges
D) radii

Question 42

Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct?

A) The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones.
B) The digits of the hands or feet may be involved.
C) The fifth finger duplications are the most common.
D) The duplication can be a partial digit or a complete additional digit.

Question 43

What is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called "club hand"?

A) carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Dupuytren's contracture
C) polydactyly
D) radial dysplasia

Question 44

What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?

A) horizontal mattress
B) figure of eight
C) purse-string
D) vertical mattress

Question 45

Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy?

A) fifth (V)
B) sixth (VI)
C) seventh (VII)
D) eighth (VIII)

Question 46

Which of the following order of steps for replantation of a digit is CORRECT?

A) tendons, vessels, nerves, then bones
B) nerves, vessels, bones, then tendons
C) vessels, tendons, bones, then nerves
D) bones, tendons, vessels, then nerves

Question 47

Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?

A) to prevent confusion because multiple surgeons will work simultaneously
B) to prevent potential for retained foreign objects in the wounds
C) to prevent overcrowding of the back table with multiple trays
D) to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both

Question 48

A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age?

A) neonate
B) 12 months old
C) 10 years old
D) 21 years or older

Question 49

Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the graft remains intact?

A) Doppler probe
B) manometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) stethoscope

Question 50

How would a transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous flap be classified?

A) free-flap graft
B) pedicle-flap graft
C) full-thickness skin graft
D) split-thickness skin graft

Question 51

Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in intentional bone fusion?

A) anastomosis
B) ankylosis
C) arthrodesis
D) arthroplasty

Question 52

Vessel loops are available in all of the following colors EXCEPT:

A) green
B) red
C) white
D) yellow

Question 53

Which position should facial procedure patients maintain postoperatively to minimize edema?

A) prone
B) lateral
C) strict supine
D) head elevated

Question 54

When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?

A) at conception
B) first trimester
C) second trimester
D) third trimester

Question 55

Which type of suture would MOST likely be used during a cleft lip repair?

A) fine absorbable
B) heavy absorbable
C) fine nonabsorbable
D) heavy nonabsorbable

Question 56

Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?

A) median
B) peroneal
C) radial
D) ulnar

Question 57

Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?

A) Permanent implants are placed, and the nipple-to-nipple distance is measured for symmetry.
B) Permanent implants are placed and filled with measured amount of saline to determine volume.
C) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with measured amounts of saline to determine volume.
D) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.

Question 58

Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren's contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?

A) Derma-carrier
B) K-wires
C) lead hand
D) Senn retractors

Question 59

All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:

A) periareolar
B) subclavicular
C) axillary crease
D) inframammary crease

Question 60

Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?

A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50

Question 61

Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often created for greatest support?

A) internal oblique
B) latissimus dorsi
C) pectoralis major
D) serratus anterior

Question 63

Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage.

Question 64

Abdominoplasty procedures cannot be performed on patients who have undergone cesarean sections, due to excessive adhesions in the lower abdomen.

Question 65

Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?

A) free flap
B) full thickness
C) pedicle flap
D) split thickness

Question 66

Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure?

A) transversus abdominis
B) rectus abdominis
C) latissimus dorsi
D) pectoralis major

Question 67

Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients.

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?

A) electrosurgery
B) laser
C) tumescent
D) ultrasonic

Question 69

Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.

Question 70

Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation.

Question 71

Which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures?

A) Bookwalter
B) fiber-optic
C) Greenberg
D) Weitlaner