Deck 30: Person-to-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a staphylococcal disease?

A) acne
B) boils
C) strep throat
D) meningitis

Answer 1

C

Question 2

How is the syphilis spirochete initially transmitted?

A) penetration of unbroken skin anywhere on the body
B) through the eyes and mucous membranes
C) through ingestion
D) through tiny breaks in the skin epithelial layer

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is/are used to identify methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?

A) selective media only
B) differential media only
C) PCR only
D) selective media, differential media, and PCR can all be used

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Influenza A virus can be identified by which of the following surface glycoproteins?

A) HA
B) NA
C) both HA and NA
D) M protein

Question 5

Once a person has been infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the individual

A) acquires transient immunity, which prevents subsequent infection for about a year in most cases.
B) can be reinfected immediately because of the diversity of strains and frequency of mutation.
C) develops long-term immunity lasting for multiple years.
D) should be treated using antiserum.

Question 6

Rheumatic fever is

A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a poststaphylococcal disease.
C) triggered by cell-surface antigens on Staphylococcus aureus cells that are similar to heart valve and joint antigens.
D) caused by human papillomavirus.

Question 7

Which of the following microbial groups is most resistant to desiccation due to their cell wall?

A) gram-positive
B) gram-negative
C) mycoplasmas
D) viruses

Question 8

A frequent symptom of the common cold is

A) nasal discharge.
B) fever.
C) headache.
D) diarrhea.

Question 9

The causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis, also known as ʺstrep throat,ʺ is

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus mutans.
D) Streptococcus lactis.

Question 10

Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) is an antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis. It affects the synthesis of

A) mycolic acid.
B) linoleic acid.
C) globular proteins of the cell membrane.
D) DNA transcription.

Question 11

Encapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are particularly pathogenic, because they

A) produce exotoxin A.
B) produce exotoxin B.
C) are potentially very invasive.
D) produce M protein surface antigens.

Question 12

The CD4 molecule is

A) an HIV surface glycoprotein.
B) a cell-surface protein that allows HIV to infect a cell.
C) found only on T-helper cells.
D) an HIV surface glycoprotein that is found only on T-helper cells.

Question 13

Which of the following is a cure for mumps?

A) a vaccine
B) an antibiotic
C) host antibodies
D) an antiviral

Question 14

Which statement is TRUE about Streptococcus pneumoniae and the lung infection it causes?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread from the focus of infection as a bacteremia.
B) Penicillin and erythromycin are the ʺlast chanceʺ drugs for treatment of streptococcal pneumonia.
C) Infection with any strain of encapsulated virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae provides long-lasting immunity to all encapsulated virulent strains.
D) Streptococcal pneumonia is not as serious as most people think; if left untreated, it usually runs its course in about a week to ten days.

Question 15

The Spanish flu of 1918 was caused by an ________ influenza virus.

A) H2N1
B) H5N1
C) H1N1
D) H2N2

Question 16

Impetigo is due to an infection caused by

A) Staphylococcus aureus but not Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes but not Staphylococcus aureus.
C) either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) neither Staphylococcus aureus nor Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 17

Which of the following drugs, chemotherapeutic agents against HIV, inhibits reverse transcriptase?

A) ampligen
B) azidothymidine
C) alpha interferon
D) soluble CD4

Question 18

Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is TRUE?

A) Chlamydial diseases are not reportable diseases.
B) Chlamydial diseases are less prevalent than gonorrhea.
C) Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications.
D) All of the statements are true.

Question 19

Which of the following is the causal agent of gastric ulcers?

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Vibrio cholerae

Question 20

The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n)

A) toxin.
B) toxoid.
C) antitoxin.
D) antitoxoid.

Question 21

Which of the following does NOT apply to bacterial pathogens affecting the respiratory tract?

A) Humans are the only reservoir for most bacterial respiratory pathogens.
B) Most are normally transmitted person to person.
C) Some often initiate secondary infections that can be life threatening.
D) Most respiratory bacterial pathogens do not respond to antibiotic therapy.

Question 22

Which of the following are group A Streptococcus (GAS)?

A) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Streptococcus pneumonia
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Streptococcus viridans

Question 23

The unique antigenic determinants of the different serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found

A) on the cell-surface M proteins.
B) on the capsular polysaccharides.
C) in the bacterial cell wall.
D) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.

Question 24

Erythromycin is applied to the eyes of newborns particularly to prevent

A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) a chlamydial infection.
D) ocular herpes.

Question 25

Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 26

Which of the following is TRUE of tuberculosis?

A) the causative agent can remain dormant in macrophages
B) it used to be very common, but is now rare
C) it is caused by a virus
D) very short antibiotic treatments of just a few days are usually sufficient for treatment

Question 27

The DTaP vaccine contains

A) purified bacterial DNA.
B) bacterial endotoxin derivatives.
C) heat-killed Bordetella pertussis cells.
D) diphtheria toxoid.

Question 28

Tuberculoid Hansenʹs disease is caused by the pathogen

A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Mycobacterium leprae.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) either Mycobacterium leprae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Question 29

The most prevalent human infectious diseases are caused by

A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) fungi.
D) protozoans.

Question 30

Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via the

A) oral route.
B) parenteral route.
C) dermal route.
D) ophthalmic route.

Question 31

The most common infectious disease is

A) gonorrhea.
B) influenza.
C) hepatitis.
D) the common cold.

Question 32

Of the following, which is the most common AIDS-associated opportunistic disease?

A) Pneumocystis jirovecti pneumonia
B) cryptosporidiosis
C) histoplasmosis
D) cryptococcosis

Question 33

Which disease is the global top infectious disease killer, causing over 1.5 million deaths per year worldwide?

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) pneumococcal pneumonia
D) tuberculosis

Question 34

Which of the following statements is TRUE about HIV infections?

A) The viral nucleocapsid of the virus enters the host cell when the viral and host membranes fuse.
B) T-helper cells are greatly reduced in number.
C) The cDNA can integrate into the host chromosome.
D) All of these statements are true.

Question 35

Serious acute cases of diphtheria are treated with antibiotics and

A) diphtheria antitoxin.
B) diphtheria toxin.
C) diphtheria toxoid.
D) diphtheria antitoxin, diphtheria toxin, and diphtheria toxoid.

Question 36

The presence of gram-positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection of

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D) Bordetella pertussis.

Question 37

"Bloodborne hepatitis" is caused by infection with hepatitis ________ virus.

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E

Question 38

Whooping cough is frequently observed in

A) elderly residents of nursing homes.
B) individuals with compromised immunity.
C) children under 6 months of age.
D) health care providers.

Question 39

Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of

A) coagulase.
B) hemolysins.
C) leukocidin.
D) catalase.

Question 40

The single most important physical sign of primary syphilis is

A) the chancre.
B) a skin rash.
C) paralysis.
D) an acute eye infection.

Question 41

Meningitis can be caused by

A) viral infections.
B) bacterial infection.
C) fungal infections.
D) viral, bacterial, or fungal infections.

Question 42

The transmission of ________ has been greatly reduced by the pasteurization of milk.

A) Mycobacterium marinum
B) Mycobacterium ulcerans
C) Mycobacterium hansen
D) Mycobacterium bovis

Question 43

The inflammatory response to Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection results in the production of a lesion called a

A) pseudomembrane.
B) chancre.
C) lesion.
D) pustule.

Question 44

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of ________.

A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2)
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 45

Nongonococcal urethritis may be caused by the protozoan ________.

A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoaea
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 46

The organisms that cause pneumococcal pneumonia are rarely found as a part of the normal flora of healthy adults.

Question 47

Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.

Question 48

Loefflerʹs medium inhibits the growth of most organisms and is commonly used to cultivate

A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) Mycobacterium leprae.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT a sign of scarlet fever?

A) fever
B) rash
C) sore throat
D) impetigo

Question 50

The HPV vaccine has been recommended for

A) females ages 11-26 only.
B) females ages 26-45 only.
C) males ages 11-26 only.
D) males and females ages 11-26.

Question 51

More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.

Question 52

Transmission of Mycobacterium leprae involves

A) direct contact.
B) respiratory transmission.
C) both direct contact and the respiratory route.
D) penetration into unbroken skin.

Question 53

A positive tuberculin test means a patient

A) may have active disease.
B) may have been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) may have a current inapparent infection.
D) may have active disease, been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or may have a current inapparent infection.

Question 54

Individuals who have an active case of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by ________ uninfected individuals.

A) coughing near
B) shaking hands with
C) hugging
D) sexual contact with

Question 55

The pink-red rash of scarlet fever may be caused by streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, C, and F, which are coded for on a lysogenic bacteriophage.

Question 56

Infections by ʺflesh-eating bacteriaʺ can occur when exotoxins A, B, C, and F and the bacterial surface M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes act as superantigens.

Question 57

Another name for pertussis is

A) the kissing disease.
B) shingles.
C) whooping cough.
D) yellow fever.

Question 58

Several strains of ________ cause genital warts and cervical cancer.

A) human papillomavirus
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) HIV

Question 59

Resident staphylococci are commonly found in the ________ and these seldom cause disease.

A) eyes
B) upper respiratory tract
C) lungs
D) kidneys

Question 60

Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells.

A) coagulase
B) collagenase
C) lipase
D) M protein

Question 61

The influenza viral envelope is unique because it contains only one type of protein.

Question 62

Most viral respiratory diseases are highly contagious but not life threatening.

Question 63

Describe which diseases human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause in males and females. What is the most common symptom of HPV infection, and why is this of concern?

Question 64

The loss of CD4 T-helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection.

Question 65

Describe how the influenza vaccine is made in the United States. Explain the strain selection and vaccine production processes for the influenza vaccine.

Question 66

Viral hepatitis can result in acute kidney disease, followed by chronic kidney disease.

Question 67

A sudden onset of a headache, vomiting, and a stiff neck are all symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.

Question 68

most of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.

Question 69

Colds are the most infectious viral diseases.

Question 70

The immune response may be as important as antibiotics in the elimination of Bordetella Pertussis from the body.

Question 71

Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, how each is contracted, and how each can be prevented.

Question 72

Patients infected with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis in environments where drug resistance is expected or has already been identified usually have to take antibacterial drugs for six to nine months to ensure the infectious agent is completely killed.

Question 73

In an HIV infection the TH cells and macrophages are NOT commonly infected.

Question 74

Chickenpox, caused by a herpes virus, results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.

Question 75

The prevalence of penicillin-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is low in North America and western Europe.

Question 76

The salt in mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 77

The availability of rapid antigen detection (RAD) systems for pathogenic streptococci has eliminated the need to culture Streptococcus Pyogenes.

Question 78

Explain the tuberculin test, including visual identification and immunological interpretation of positive and negative results, and describe why a positive test does not indicate an active infection.

Question 79

Explain the stages of syphilis. What are the characteristics of and treatments required at each stage?

Question 80

A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.