Deck 3: Certified Quality Engineer

Question 1

Any group, designing a quality information system (QIS) to collect product data, must consider which of the following items?

A) How the results will be used. II. The frequency that results must be reported. III. The allowable data error variation.
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Answer 1

D

Question 2

For TQM success, what structure sequence should be followed?

A) Develop a quality policy. II. Establish a quality council. III. Establish strategic quality goals. IV. Train for internal audits.
B) II, III, I, IV
C) II, I, III, IV
D) III, II, I, IV
E) I, II, III, IV

Answer 2

B

Question 3

What is the highest form of partnering with employees?

A) Employee involvement.
B) Task teams.
C) Cost reduction projects.
D) Stock option plans.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following are likely to be positive actions in obtaining a supplier's commitment to quality improvement?

A) Involving the supplier early in the product development stage. II. Partially reimbursing the supplier, when the product is rejected. III. Establishing a firm schedule of required product quantities and dates. IV. Providing meaningful and timely quality performance feedback.
B) I and IV only
C) I, II and IV only
D) I, III and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 5

A company is planning to completely change its employee performance, appraisal and reward system. Which of the following is NOT viable for consideration in the new system?

A) Integrating subordinate, peer, customer, and self-evaluations with supervisory ratings.
B) Using continuous improvement, quality and customer satisfaction as key criteria.
C) Requiring work team or group evaluations that are equal in emphasis to individual evaluations.
D) Requiring less frequent performance reviews, but utilizing many rating categories.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?

A) Writing operating procedures.
B) Training.
C) Data acquisition and analysis.
D) Calibrating test equipment.

Question 7

The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?

A) Increased cost-of-quality results.
B) Improved working methods and morale.
C) Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D) Reduced defects and employee turn-over.

Question 8

In order to implement a continuous improvement strategy, a company may institute a steering committee or improvement council. Which of the following would generally NOT be a task performed by this council?

A) The development of a quality vision for the company.
B) The combined development and implementation of the company improvement strategy.
C) The definition of certain quality objectives for sections of the company.
D) The development of quality education and communication modules for the organization.

Question 9

What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?

A) Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group. II. Difficulty in arriving at consensus. III. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities. IV. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
B) I only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 10

Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following actions is effective in countering this problem?

A) Stop killing the messenger. II. Establishing an open door policy. III. Practice management by walking around.
B) I only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 11

Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:

A) A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B) A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured or judged.
C) Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to another's performance.
D) The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.

Question 12

A pre-award evaluation of a supplier's quality system capability should NOT include consideration of

A) The supplier's product-quality history.
B) The supplier's geographical location.
C) The supplier's implementation of quality manual procedures.
D) The supplier's skills in quality control techniques.

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a method for customer service data collection?

A) Customer surveys.
B) Internal surveys.
C) Customer visits.
D) Complaint analysis.

Question 14

The Malcolm Baldrige award is open for competition among which of the following?

A) Large manufacturing businesses. II. Large and small manufacturing businesses. III. Service organizations. IV. Large service companies.
B) I only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) II and IV only

Question 15

A product failure in the customer's hands is bad for the company. Why do only 4% of the customers normally file a complaint?

A) The product guarantee takes care of the product.
B) A warranty is in place on the product.
C) It is a minor inconvenience.
D) They don't think it will do any good.

Question 16

In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:

A) Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B) Provide feedback to the group.
C) Function as the group leader.
D) Summarize key ideas generated by the group.

Question 17

Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses? He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.

A) Dr. Juran
B) Dr. Deming
C) Dr. Taguchi
D) Dr. Feigenbaum

Question 18

An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:

A) Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B) Prevention costs increase.
C) Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D) Management objectives are met.

Question 19

During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly describes team activities?

A) The team leader is usually directive. II. The team leader often delegates tasks. III. Team members prioritize and perform duties. IV. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
B) II and III only
C) I, II and III only
D) I and IV only
E) II, III and IV only

Question 20

Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on the gaps in performance?

A) Secure a workshop trainer.
B) Review a record of activities.
C) Set up a one shot case study.
D) Allocate employees for training.

Question 21

The existence of a quality control manual at your key supplier means

A) That a quality system has been developed.
B) That a quality system has been implemented.
C) That the firm is quality conscious.
D) That the firm is a certified supplier.

Question 22

An audit will be viewed as a constructive service to the function which is audited when it

A) Is conducted by nontechnical auditors.
B) Proposes corrective action for each item uncovered.
C) Furnishes enough detailed facts so the necessary action can be determined.
D) Is general enough to permit managerial intervention.

Question 23

The sample size for a product quality audit should be

A) Based on ANSI/ASQ Z1.4.
B) Based on the lot size.
C) A stated percentage of production.
D) A very small quantity of product.

Question 24

The term "quality audit" can refer to the appraisal of the quality system of

A) An entire plant or company. II. One product. III. One major quality activity.
B) I only
C) I, II and III
D) II and III only
E) I and III only

Question 25

What is the key ranking difference between the Deming philosophy and the Malcolm Baldrige award criteria?

A) Deming prescribes "all or nothing" propositions but MBNQA ranks categories with different weights.
B) The MBNQA ranks "business results" and "customer focus", but Deming does not consider these items.
C) The MBNQA has seven categories compared to Deming's 14 points.
D) There is no recognized rating system for the MBNQA.

Question 26

When asked to make recommendations on how to correct any deficiencies noted in the exit report, the auditor(s) should

A) Make the best recommendation possible.
B) Confer with the client first.
C) Avoid a recommendation in writing but help the auditee of possible.
D) Offer no specific advice and few suggestions.

Question 27

A vendor may be audited both before and during the execution of a contract. During such a vendor audit, the focus may be directed at the management and resource management of the company. Which of the following areas would be EXCLUDED during such an audit?

A) Use and planning of time, manpower and training.
B) Defined quality responsibilities.
C) Company philosophy and organizational charts.
D) Design and process capabilities.

Question 28

Quality audits do NOT provide

A) Answers to quality system deficiencies.
B) Highlighting of faulty company operations.
C) An index of quality needs.
D) An anticipated indication of customer acceptance of the product.

Question 29

Which of the following parties, traditionally initiates an audit?

A) The client.
B) The plant manager.
C) The lead auditor.
D) The auditee.

Question 30

Which of the following would be considered the WEAKEST reason to initiate an audit?

A) To compare actual practice to a defined standard.
B) Follow-up on corrective action.
C) Identify the root cause of a recent problem.
D) Verify that a quality system continues to meet requirements.

Question 31

You are requested by top management to establish an audit program of the quality systems in each branch plant of your firm. Which of the following schemes would you use in selecting the audit team to optimize continuity, direction, availability, and technology transfer?

A) A full time audit staff.
B) All volunteer audit staff.
C) Hybrid audit staff (a proportion of answers a and b above).
D) An outside consulting firm.

Question 32

The example of a supplier's quality management effort to meet your existing contractual requirements is MOST like

A) A product audit. II. A process audit. III. A system audit.
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
E) I, II and III

Question 33

A quality control program is considered to be

A) A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines.
B) A step by step listing of all quality control check points.
C) A summary of company quality control policies.
D) A system of activities to provide quality of products and service.

Question 34

A purchase order for subassemblies classified as critical must include a review by

A) Quality engineering. II. The procurement department. III. Design engineering.
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 35

The audit team normally advises the auditee immediately upon the discovery of a finding during an audit. Which of the following items is (are) valid reasons for taking this action?

A) If corrected immediately, the findings may be eliminated from the audit report. II. If corrected immediately, it shows genuine auditee interest in the objectives of the audit. III. If corrected immediately, it demonstrates the strength of an ongoing audit program.
B) I only
C) III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 36

During the performance of an audit, which of the following are key considerations?

A) What sampling plans may be necessary? II. Is the audit schedule progressing as planned? III. Is there a need for a technical specialist? IV. Is the level of compliance satisfactory?
B) I, II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 37

Which of the following items is the MOST important consideration when selecting an audit team member?

A) Being familiar with the organization that will be audited.
B) Being competent in auditing techniques.
C) Being competent in many quality control techniques.
D) Having technical knowledge of the area being audited.

Question 38

In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the following activities?

A) Use employee involvement and teamwork.
B) Encourage team competition.
C) Encourage sacrificing for the team.
D) Coordinate efforts of the departments.

Question 39

Findings and observations are audit terms. The best relationship between these terms is which of the following?

A) Observations are broader in scope than findings.
B) Observations are seen; findings are discovered.
C) Observations generally support findings.
D) Findings are reported in writing, observations are reported verbally.

Question 40

Normally, complaint data for both a product or service organization should provide

A) An indication of the organizational areas creating the most problems.
B) The degree or extent of customers dissatisfaction.
C) The appropriate corrective action to take.
D) The total quality costs for the organization.

Question 41

Reliability prediction is

A) The process of performance estimation. II. The process of estimating the probability that a product will perform its intended function for a stated time. III. The process of telling "how you can get there from here".
B) I only
C) II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 42

Four ingredients are blended to make a final product. Using the data below, what is the expected weight and variation of the final product? Ingredient A 70 ± 3.00 grams Ingredient B 20 ± 1.73 grams Ingredient C 15 ± 1.73 grams Ingredient D 10 ±- 1.00 grams

A) 115 ± 7.46 grams
B) 115 ± 5.73 grams
C) 115 ± 4.00 grams
D) 115 ± 3.61 grams

Question 43

Analysis of data on all product returns is important because

A) Failure rates change with length of product usage. II. Changes in design and in customer use are often well reflected. III. Immediate feedback and analysis of product performance becomes available.
B) I only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 44

Which of the following would be the MOST important considerations when establishing inspection points within a production operation?

A) Inspection to prevent defects from entering the system. II. Inspection after all operations (both manual and automated). III. Inspection prior to a painting or masking operation.
B) I only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
E) I, II and III

Question 45

The primary reason that nonconforming material should be identified and segregated is

A) So that the cause of nonconformity can be determined.
B) So it cannot be used in production without proper authorization.
C) To obtain samples of poor workmanship for use in the company's training program.
D) So that responsibility can be determined and disciplinary action taken.

Question 46

The failure rate model above is used to show a typical relationship of many parts between their failure rate and the time in service. The reliability function for period "B" is BEST represented by

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D

Question 47

Corrective action requests are primarily

A) Issued to correct supplier deficiencies.
B) Generated to correct auditing deficiencies.
C) Formal requests for corrective and preventive action.
D) A result of nonconformances detected in the internal inspection process.

Question 48

Consider the following statement: "A defect which might affect the appearance or general function of essential parts" This definition describes a seriousness classification described as

A) Incidental.
B) Critical.
C) Minor.
D) Major.

Question 49

Which of the following are the MOST logical reasons for providing source inspection?

A) The supplier has consistently shown poor out-going quality. II. The key inspection points are hidden after assembly at the suppliers' plant. III. The supplier requests the inspection to save them potential shipping expenses. IV. The criticality of the product warrants it.
B) I, II and IV only
C) II and IV only
D) II, III and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 50

Failure mode, effect, and criticality analysis, (FMECA) is primarily for the purpose of

A) Learning as much about the item as possible after qualification test.
B) Determining the way an item will most likely fail to help obtain design and procedural safeguards against such failures.
C) Determining, by extensive analysis, the reliability of an item.
D) Determining the cause of a failure, by dissecting the item, to help obtain corrective action.

Question 51

A system was designed with 3 capacitors. When the system is first activated all capacitors are operating. The system continues to operate as long as at least 1 capacitor is operating. This is an example of

A) Redundancy.
B) A series system.
C) An active parallel system.
D) A standby parallel system.

Question 52

Of the services listed below, which one performed by design engineering is of particular interest to QA personnel?

A) Audit reports.
B) Cost reports.
C) Change action.
D) Rework criteria.

Question 53

The first and most important step, in establishing a good corporate quality plan is

A) Determining customer requirements.
B) Determining manufacturing process capabilities.
C) Evaluation vendor quality systems.
D) Ensuring quality participation in design review.

Question 54

Maintainability is

A) The probability of a system being restored to functional operation within a given period of time.
B) Performing adequate maintenance on a system.
C) Probability of survival of a system for a given period of time.
D) Maintaining a machine in satisfactory working condition.

Question 55

When requesting "worst case" design analysis, you expect the reliability group to

A) Analyze the worst rejects.
B) Analyze only those products failing to meet specification requirements.
C) Determine whether product requirements can be met with subassemblies assumed at their worst combination of tolerances.
D) Assume all subassembly tolerances at their maximum limit.

Question 56

In the failure rate model shown below, which one of the sections represents the period when catastrophic failures are likely to occur?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) All sections can experience catastrophic failure.

Question 57

Inspection operations typically

A) Help in assuring satisfactory quality.
B) Reduce the usability of the product or service involved.
C) Require precise equipment in most instances.
D) Occur between all manufacturing operators.

Question 58

When planning quality control functions, which one of the following is MOST directly related to production of a quality product?

A) Process control and process capability.
B) Suitable blueprints.
C) Dimensional tolerancing.
D) Product audits.

Question 59

In the planning of a new major manufacturing program, the greatest quality effort should be put logically in

A) Inspection of product.
B) Nondestructive testing equipment.
C) Nonconformance to specifications.
D) Prevention of occurrence of substandard quality.

Question 60

Which of the following quality system provisions is of the greatest concern when preparing an audit checklist for a vendor qualification system audit?

A) Drawing and print control.
B) Makeup of the MRB
C) Training level of inspectors.
D) Calibration of test equipment.

Question 61

Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process?

A) Pareto chart.
B) Control chart.
C) Histogram.
D) Cause and effect diagram.

Question 62

What is the probability of an item failing in less than 5 hours if it has a constant failure rate of 1/hour?

A) 0.00674
B) 0.99127
C) 0.99326
D) 0.99642

Question 63

The Shewhart or Deming cycle is often referred to as

A) The cause and effect diagram.
B) The affinity diagram.
C) Plan-do-check-act.
D) Problem solving flow chart.

Question 64

The probability of an accident for the head event "H" given below is:

A) 0.0700
B) 0.1125
C) 0.0689
D) 0.1100

Question 65

Which of the following distributions have the set of all real numbers as their domain?

A) Lognormal
B) Exponential
C) Weibull
D) None of the above.

Question 66

The descriptive name for a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is which of the following?

A) Flow charts.
B) Cause and effect diagrams.
C) Pareto diagram.
D) Scatter diagram.

Question 67

When trying to find all possible causes of a problem, which of the following tools would be useful?

A) Systematic troubleshooting and brainstorming. II. Fishbone diagrams and histograms. III. Checklists and scatter diagrams. IV. Control charts and graphs.
B) I and IV only
C) I, II and IV only
D) II, III and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 68

Which of the following actions or techniques is MOST useful in determining the original fundamental cause of a product or process nonconformance?

A) Continuous improvement.
B) Pareto analysis.
C) Root cause analysis.
D) Preventive action.

Question 69

Which of the following statements describes discrete data?

A) It takes 3 hours 48 minutes to fly from LA to New York.
B) Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights.
C) The flight arrived at 9:08 PM.
D) There were 5,923 gallons of fuel consumed on the flight.

Question 70

What does a corrective action do to prevent an existing noncomformity, defect or undesirable situation from recurring?

A) Minimizes it.
B) Takes repercussions against those responsible.
C) Takes action against it.
D) Eliminates it.

Question 71

Typically Pareto diagrams are used for which of the following reasons?

A) To display the significant few categories. II. To compliment attribute data charting. III. To eliminate insignificant categories. IV. To focus attention in priority order.
B) I and III only
C) I, II and III only
D) II, III and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 72

What order do the following corrective action steps normally take for nonconforming product?

A) Analyze the problem. II. Assign responsibility. III. Take preventive action. IV. Evaluate potential importance.
B) Investigate possible causes.
C) I, II, V, IV, III
D) II, IV, V, I, III
E) V, II, IV, I, III
F) II, I, IV, V, III

Question 73

Which of the following statements BEST describes a bimodal distribution?

A) This distribution shows stratified data and two distinct peaks.
B) This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution.
C) This distribution is truncated.
D) This distribution has several distribution peaks.

Question 74

As a commonly used problem solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application of a Pareto chart?

A) To determine when to make proactive adjustments to a process. II. To differentiate between major and minor problem areas. III. To gather data and to design experimental controlled changes. IV. To evaluate the results of other problem solving techniques upon the product or service.
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) II and IV only
E) I, II, III and IV

Question 75

The design function which assigns probability of failures between components or subsystems is called

A) Apportionment.
B) Significance
C) Confidence.
D) Qualification.

Question 76

Which of the following tools can provide a ranking of things to be done?

A) Measles charts.
B) Cause & effect diagram.
C) Scatter diagram.
D) Checklist.

Question 77

Determine the coefficient of variation for the last 500 pilot plant test runs of high temperature film having a mean of 900 Kelvin with a standard deviation of 54.

A) 6%
B) 16.7%
C) 60%
D) 31%

Question 78

Of the problem solving categories below, what is the usual sequence? 1. Select a problem needing improvement. 2. Collect data. 3. Implement the solution. 4. Determine if project is appropriate. 5. Study current procedures. 6. Determine candidates for data collection. 7. Analyze data. 8. Solve the problem.

A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 3, 8, 2, 7
B) 1, 5, 4, 6, 2, 7, 8, 3
C) 1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 8, 7, 3
D) 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 7, 8, 3

Question 79

Which of the following quantitative methods does NOT apply to the assessment of actual system/component reliability?

A) Statistical analysis of field test and failure data.
B) Statistical allocation of reliability goals.
C) Evaluation of laboratory test data.
D) Analysis of results of reliability demonstration tests.

Question 80

A normal (Gaussian) distribution curve is

A) Bell shaped.
B) Dome shaped.
C) Pear shaped.
D) Positively skewed.