Deck 1: Storage Networking Foundations
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Deck 1: Storage Networking Foundations
1
You want to use a light-weight communication API for cloud access. What would you use in this situation?
A) Representational State Transfer (REST)
B) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
A) Representational State Transfer (REST)
B) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
A
2
A company is concerned with high space usage on its storage devices, especially during certain periods of time when the same or similar information is being sent or received. Which solution will address this concern?
A) data compression
B) encryption
C) thin provisioning
D) deduplication
A) data compression
B) encryption
C) thin provisioning
D) deduplication
A
3
Which two technologies are part of the Data Center Bridging (DCB) standard? (Choose two.)
A) Priority-based Flow Control (PFC)
B) Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
C) Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP)
D) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
A) Priority-based Flow Control (PFC)
B) Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS)
C) Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP)
D) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
A,B
4
Which two statements are true about archiving? (Choose two.)
A) Archiving is an open source technology based on Cinder and OpenStack.
B) The purpose of archiving is the long term preservation of information.
C) Archiving can be used as a response to meet regulatory requirements.
D) Archiving is performed exclusively to tape.
A) Archiving is an open source technology based on Cinder and OpenStack.
B) The purpose of archiving is the long term preservation of information.
C) Archiving can be used as a response to meet regulatory requirements.
D) Archiving is performed exclusively to tape.
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5
Which level of data access does a SAN device provide compared to NAS?
A) file access
B) block access
C) packet access
D) object access
A) file access
B) block access
C) packet access
D) object access
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6
According to SNIA, what is a data structure signed with a digital signature that is based using a public key and confirms that the key belongs to the subject identified in the structure called?
A) secure key
B) certificate
C) public key
D) private key
A) secure key
B) certificate
C) public key
D) private key
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7
Which feature would be used for SAN traffic isolation?
A) zoning
B) multi-pathing
C) volume management
D) failover
A) zoning
B) multi-pathing
C) volume management
D) failover
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8
A physical server is having a native or bare-metal hypervisor installed before being deployed. In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A) The hypervisor runs as a program on a host operating system and supports only one instance of a virtual server.
B) The hypervisor runs directly on the server hardware and supports the creation of multiple concurrent instances of virtual servers.
C) The hypervisor runs directly on the server hardware and supports the creation of only one instance of a virtual server.
D) The hypervisor runs as a program on a host operating system and supports multiple concurrent instances of virtual servers.
A) The hypervisor runs as a program on a host operating system and supports only one instance of a virtual server.
B) The hypervisor runs directly on the server hardware and supports the creation of multiple concurrent instances of virtual servers.
C) The hypervisor runs directly on the server hardware and supports the creation of only one instance of a virtual server.
D) The hypervisor runs as a program on a host operating system and supports multiple concurrent instances of virtual servers.
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9
You want to manage systems and devices on a network with traps that signal the occurrence of an event. In this scenario, which protocol would you use?
A) TLS
B) CDMI
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
A) TLS
B) CDMI
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
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10
Which two statements regarding hybrid drives are correct? (Choose two.)
A) Flash memory stores frequently accessed content.
B) Flash memory is located on the motherboard of the server.
C) Flash memory is located on the HDD circuit board.
D) Flash memory is not used with a hybrid drive.
A) Flash memory stores frequently accessed content.
B) Flash memory is located on the motherboard of the server.
C) Flash memory is located on the HDD circuit board.
D) Flash memory is not used with a hybrid drive.
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11
What are two NAS file access protocols? (Choose two.)
A) SMB
B) iSCSI
C) NFS
D) FCP
A) SMB
B) iSCSI
C) NFS
D) FCP
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12
What is a SNIA standard that defines an interface used by applications to create, retrieve, update and delete elements from the cloud?
A) FTP
B) CDMI
C) S3
D) SFTP
A) FTP
B) CDMI
C) S3
D) SFTP
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13
What is the purpose of a host bus adapter (НВА)?
A) to connect a switch port to front end storage
B) to provide host backups to tape media
C) to connect a host to a switch
D) to use a host CPU to interface with storage controllers
A) to connect a switch port to front end storage
B) to provide host backups to tape media
C) to connect a host to a switch
D) to use a host CPU to interface with storage controllers
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14
Which type of cloud allows management of backups to local, public, and/or private clouds to meet the varying requirements of cost, availability, latency, and security?
A) public
B) private
C) hybrid
D) secure
A) public
B) private
C) hybrid
D) secure
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15
You have a RAID 5 set with five disks at 400 GB each. Approximately how much usable space would this configuration yield?
A) 1 terabyte
B) 2 terabytes
C) 1.2 terabytes
D) 1.6 terabytes
A) 1 terabyte
B) 2 terabytes
C) 1.2 terabytes
D) 1.6 terabytes
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16
What describes the process of moving data between different classes of disks and storage, based on policy?
A) data clustering
B) IOPS monitoring
C) storage tiering
D) LUN migration
A) data clustering
B) IOPS monitoring
C) storage tiering
D) LUN migration
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17
You want to improve disk space usage efficiency while maintaining high availability. In this scenario, which solution satisfies this requirement?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
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18
Which two security methods will protect iSCSI traffic from unauthorized tampering or spoofing? (Choose two.)
A) Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
B) ACLs
C) encryption at rest
D) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
A) Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
B) ACLs
C) encryption at rest
D) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
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19
What is Software Defined Storage?
A) virtualized storage with a Fibre Channel interface
B) virtualized storage with an Ethernet interface
C) physical storage with a service management interface
D) virtualized storage with a service management interface
A) virtualized storage with a Fibre Channel interface
B) virtualized storage with an Ethernet interface
C) physical storage with a service management interface
D) virtualized storage with a service management interface
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20
Software Defined Storage (SDS) uses which type of technology to function?
A) application
B) replication
C) virtualization
D) authentication
A) application
B) replication
C) virtualization
D) authentication
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21
Which two statements about jumbo Ethernet frames are correct? (Choose two.)
A) A jumbo frame is an Ethernet frame with a payload greater than 1500 bytes.
B) Jumbo frames are always a fixed standard length of 9000 bytes.
C) Jumbo frames can increase the latency on a network due to the transmission of larger frames.
D) Jumbo frames enable the transmission of iSCSI packets on the IP network.
A) A jumbo frame is an Ethernet frame with a payload greater than 1500 bytes.
B) Jumbo frames are always a fixed standard length of 9000 bytes.
C) Jumbo frames can increase the latency on a network due to the transmission of larger frames.
D) Jumbo frames enable the transmission of iSCSI packets on the IP network.
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22
According to SNIA, what are two valid storage tiering types? (Choose two.)
A) storage cache tiering
B) host tiering
C) application tiering
D) cloud tiering
A) storage cache tiering
B) host tiering
C) application tiering
D) cloud tiering
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23
You want to replace multiple copies of data, at variable levels of granularity, with references to a shared copy to save storage space and/or bandwidth. Which data reduction method would satisfy the requirement?
A) deduplication
B) compression
C) thin provisioning
D) conditioning
A) deduplication
B) compression
C) thin provisioning
D) conditioning
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24
You are consulting for a major financial institution and are verifying their current disaster recovery processes. Your client has a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero. In this scenario what does this mean?
A) The customer has a zero data loss requirement.
B) The customer has no data at risk.
C) The customer has a zero tolerance policy.
D) The customer has a zero chance of failure.
A) The customer has a zero data loss requirement.
B) The customer has no data at risk.
C) The customer has a zero tolerance policy.
D) The customer has a zero chance of failure.
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25
At which level would you apply LUN masking?
A) file system level
B) switch level
C) zone alias level
D) controller level
A) file system level
B) switch level
C) zone alias level
D) controller level
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26
What are two requirements of a server cluster with regards to storage technologies? (Choose two.)
A) a switch fabric
B) a file locking mechanism
C) a back-end storage database
D) shared storage
A) a switch fabric
B) a file locking mechanism
C) a back-end storage database
D) shared storage
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27
What would be placed in a Fibre Channel zone?
A) IP address
B) MAC address
C) IQN of an initiator
D) World Wide Port Name (WWPN)
A) IP address
B) MAC address
C) IQN of an initiator
D) World Wide Port Name (WWPN)
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28
What is another name for a storage volume?
A) Converged Network Adapter (CNA)
B) logical unit number (LUN)
C) storage port
D) Host Bus Adapter (HBA)
A) Converged Network Adapter (CNA)
B) logical unit number (LUN)
C) storage port
D) Host Bus Adapter (HBA)
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29
Which storage technology uses optics for connectivity?
A) LTO tape
B) SAS
C) SATA
D) Fibre Channel
E) iSCSI
A) LTO tape
B) SAS
C) SATA
D) Fibre Channel
E) iSCSI
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30
What are two reasons for using a full backup? (Choose two.)
A) When a host needs to have all of the data available to be restored.
B) When a host restore can be accomplished across multiple jobs and sessions.
C) When a backup requires minimal space consumption.
D) When a backup must be available in one backup image.
A) When a host needs to have all of the data available to be restored.
B) When a host restore can be accomplished across multiple jobs and sessions.
C) When a backup requires minimal space consumption.
D) When a backup must be available in one backup image.
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31
What are two scenarios where using disk replication is a valid risk mitigation strategy? (Choose two.)
A) a primary storage array non-recoverable hardware failure
B) an extended power failure at the primary site
C) information destruction due to a security breach
D) system instability due to a bad OS update
A) a primary storage array non-recoverable hardware failure
B) an extended power failure at the primary site
C) information destruction due to a security breach
D) system instability due to a bad OS update
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32
What is an implementation of a secure, multi-tenant cloud environment that is externally available to all users?
A) private
B) public
C) secure
D) hybrid
A) private
B) public
C) secure
D) hybrid
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33
You explain to a customer that storage data compression can be used on most data types. However, there are exceptions. Which file type is an exception?
A) *. txt
B) *. bat
C) * . J pg
D) *. ora
A) *. txt
B) *. bat
C) * . J pg
D) *. ora
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34
Which two technologies use NAND flash memory (non-volatile) technology to store data? (Choose two.)
A) quad-level cell (QLC)
B) single-level cell (SLC)
C) interim-level cell (ILC)
D) multi-level cell (MLC)
A) quad-level cell (QLC)
B) single-level cell (SLC)
C) interim-level cell (ILC)
D) multi-level cell (MLC)
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35
What do RAID 5 sets use to rebuild data?
A) Flash memory
B) mirroring
C) parity
D) data quiescing
A) Flash memory
B) mirroring
C) parity
D) data quiescing
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36
Your customer has a Fibre Channel SAN environment and has properly zoned servers for storage with front end controller ports. When an administrator goes to initialize a provisioned volume, it is not seen on the server. What would cause this problem?
A) an unplugged cable
B) a multi-path I/O failure
C) a corrupted volume
D) improper LUN masking
A) an unplugged cable
B) a multi-path I/O failure
C) a corrupted volume
D) improper LUN masking
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37
What is the function of the Fibre Channel name server?
A) It retrieves all files from a file store by name.
B) It provides service to register Fibre Channel N_Ports.
C) It partitions Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs).
D) It load balances the SAN traffic.
A) It retrieves all files from a file store by name.
B) It provides service to register Fibre Channel N_Ports.
C) It partitions Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs).
D) It load balances the SAN traffic.
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38
What should a valid iSCSI qualified name include?
A) the iSCSI string
B) date code, in yyyy-mm format
C) the WWN string
D) initials of company name
A) the iSCSI string
B) date code, in yyyy-mm format
C) the WWN string
D) initials of company name
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39
Which statement describes an N_Port login?
A) a process by which a server HBA port logs in to a fabric
B) a process by which FC initiators establish sessions with targets
C) a process by which users obtain access to a host
D) a process by which two FC-4 layer processes establish communication
A) a process by which a server HBA port logs in to a fabric
B) a process by which FC initiators establish sessions with targets
C) a process by which users obtain access to a host
D) a process by which two FC-4 layer processes establish communication
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40
Which software technique reduces the effects of a hardware component failure?
A) volume management
B) multi-pathing
C) LUN masking
D) zoning
A) volume management
B) multi-pathing
C) LUN masking
D) zoning
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41
Which interface is used for 40GbE?
A) Twinax
B) Small Form Factor pluggable (SFP+)
C) multimode fiber (MMF)
D) Quad Small Form Factor pluggable (QSFP+)
A) Twinax
B) Small Form Factor pluggable (SFP+)
C) multimode fiber (MMF)
D) Quad Small Form Factor pluggable (QSFP+)
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42
Your company needs to buy more disks for new servers and are considering SSD and HDD solutions. What are two reasons why you would recommend using SSD? (Choose two.)
A) lower cost
B) no moving parts
C) better performance
D) high capacity
A) lower cost
B) no moving parts
C) better performance
D) high capacity
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43
Which hardware component transports FC and IP traffic?
A) RAID array
B) iSCSI
C) NIC
D) CNA
A) RAID array
B) iSCSI
C) NIC
D) CNA
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44
You are designing a synchronous remote mirror solution. Which two factors regarding maximum distance must be considered in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A) the availability of high-speed communication links
B) the customer's application tolerance for latency
C) the customer's RTO requirement
D) the amount of storage required by the customer's application
A) the availability of high-speed communication links
B) the customer's application tolerance for latency
C) the customer's RTO requirement
D) the amount of storage required by the customer's application
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45
Which type of server initiates an NDMP backup?
A) directory server
B) NDMP server
C) application server
D) database server
A) directory server
B) NDMP server
C) application server
D) database server
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46
What is the default port that iSCSI traffic uses?
A) 443
B) 3260
C) 80
D) 53
A) 443
B) 3260
C) 80
D) 53
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47
When presenting a single volume to multiple hosts, which type of service needs to be running on the hosts?
A) clustering services
B) DNS services
C) directory services
D) DHCP services
A) clustering services
B) DNS services
C) directory services
D) DHCP services
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48
What are three iSCSI configuration optimization techniques? (Choose three.)
A) Combine iSCSI data traffic with management IP traffic for maximum efficiency.
B) Enable jumbo frames.
C) Isolate iSCSI traffic from other IP frames.
D) Place a firewall between initiators and targets for security.
E) Enable flow control on switches.
A) Combine iSCSI data traffic with management IP traffic for maximum efficiency.
B) Enable jumbo frames.
C) Isolate iSCSI traffic from other IP frames.
D) Place a firewall between initiators and targets for security.
E) Enable flow control on switches.
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49
According to SNIA, what is the term that describes a mechanism allocating the physical capacity of a volume or file system as applications write data?
A) thick provisioning
B) thin provisioning
C) hybrid provisioning
D) static provisioning
A) thick provisioning
B) thin provisioning
C) hybrid provisioning
D) static provisioning
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50
What are the requirements for a boot from SAN? (Choose two.)
A) Zoning of the LUN containing the OS image is required.
B) An active path to the LUN is required.
C) The host server and storage should be from the same vendor
D) Only CNAs can be used.
A) Zoning of the LUN containing the OS image is required.
B) An active path to the LUN is required.
C) The host server and storage should be from the same vendor
D) Only CNAs can be used.
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51
At which point in the communication chain is multi-pathing initiated?
A) the operating system device driver level
B) the switch level
C) the storage array level
D) the physical cable interface level
A) the operating system device driver level
B) the switch level
C) the storage array level
D) the physical cable interface level
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52
Which entity is responsible for making cloud services available for cloud consumers?
A) cloud provider
B) cloud auditor
C) cloud storage
D) cloud infrastructure
A) cloud provider
B) cloud auditor
C) cloud storage
D) cloud infrastructure
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53
What is the name of the process by which a SAN dynamically extends volumes depending on server and application needs?
A) Copy On First Write (COFW)
B) deduplication
C) LUN expansion
D) thin provisioning
A) Copy On First Write (COFW)
B) deduplication
C) LUN expansion
D) thin provisioning
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54
Which device would communicate to a DAS?
A) NIC
B) switch
C) HBA
D) DB9 serial cable
A) NIC
B) switch
C) HBA
D) DB9 serial cable
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55
What is a set of data processing components that are automatically provisioned by providers, accessed over a network, and provides secure multi-tenancy?
A) network infrastructure
B) database infrastructure
C) storage infrastructure
D) cloud infrastructure
A) network infrastructure
B) database infrastructure
C) storage infrastructure
D) cloud infrastructure
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