Deck 15: Blood

Question 1

Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?

A) Myelosuppression
B) Hemolysis
C) Phagocytosis
D) Petechiae

Answer 1

Myelosuppression

Question 2

Which of the following is vitamin K dependent?

A) Heparin
B) Erythropoietin
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Prothrombin

Answer 2

Prothrombin

Question 3

Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?

A) Granulocyte
B) Erythrocyte
C) Thrombocyte
D) Eosinophil

Answer 3

Erythrocyte

Question 4

Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis?

A) Coagulation
B) Platelet plug
C) Phagocytosis
D) Blood vessel spasm

Question 5

Which of the following is most descriptive of a reticulocyte?

A) Thrombocyte
B) Granulocyte
C) Platelet
D) Immature erythrocyte

Question 6

Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?

A) Hypoxemia
B) Low blood volume
C) Low plasma pH (acidosis)
D) Infection

Question 7

Hemolysis causes

A) leukocytosis.
B) acidosis.
C) hyperbilirubinemia.
D) a prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding.

Question 8

Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen?

A) Thrombolytic agents
B) Anticoagulants
C) Clotting factors
D) Plasminogen activators

Question 9

Which of the following is most associated with a blood clot?

A) Agglutination
B) Hemophilia
C) Fibrin strands
D) Rh factor

Question 10

Erythropoietin

A) is secreted by the kidneys.
B) stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs.
C) is released in response to hypoxemia.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 11

Intrinsic factor

A) is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin.
B) is a clotting factor.
C) is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12.
D) stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

Question 12

Which of the following is called extrinsic factor?

A) Vitamin B12
B) Iron
C) Heme
D) Prothrombin

Question 13

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

A) prevents blood coagulation.
B) causes thrombocytopenia.
C) dissolves blood clots.
D) prevents the formation of a platelet plug.

Question 14

Monocytes and lymphocytes

A) contain hemoglobin.
B) are thrombocytes.
C) are nongranular leukocytes.
D) are hemostatic.

Question 15

An antithrombin agent

A) causes jaundice.
B) prevents blood coagulation.
C) fights infection.
D) stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin.

Question 16

Rapid breakdown of which blood cell causes jaundice?

A) Granulocyte
B) Platelet
C) Red blood cell
D) Lymphocyte

Question 17

Heme contains

A) albumin.
B) plasma.
C) iron.
D) erythropoietin.

Question 18

Which blood cell fits this description: granulocytic,phagocytic,and motile?

A) Thrombocyte
B) Eosinophil
C) Neutrophil
D) Lymphocyte

Question 19

An infection is most often accompanied by

A) thrombocytopenia.
B) anemia.
C) jaundice.
D) leukocytosis.

Question 20

Thrombocytopenia

A) refers to a deficiency of platelets.
B) is caused by myelosuppression.
C) may be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 21

Which of the following is related to the white blood cell?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Oxygen transport
C) Hemoglobin
D) Bilirubin

Question 22

Which of the following types of blood can a person with type O blood receive safely?

A) A type
B) B type
C) AB type
D) O type

Question 23

Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus?

A) Flushed
B) Yellow
C) Blue
D) Ecchymotic

Question 24

Which type of anemia is associated with myelosuppression?

A) Folic acid deficiency
B) Aplastic
C) Hemolytic
D) Sickle cell

Question 25

What is the name of the condition caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?

A) Leukopenia
B) Anemia
C) Jaundice
D) Kernicterus

Question 26

A decrease in the numbers of erythrocytes is called

A) granulocytopenia.
B) thrombocytopenia.
C) polycythemia.
D) anemia.

Question 27

What is the normal pH of blood?

A) 7.00 to 7.45
B) 7.35 to 7.45
C) 6.92 to 7.25
D) 7.45 to 7.80

Question 28

What is the breakdown product of heme?

A) Thrombin
B) Plasmin
C) Bilirubin
D) Albumin

Question 29

Which of the following is characteristic of the activated platelet?

A) Granulocyte
B) Bilirubin
C) O2 transport
D) Stickiness

Question 30

Leukocytosis and leukopenia are

A) increased numbers of white blood cells.
B) decreased numbers of white blood cells.
C) abnormal numbers of white blood cells.
D) the result of myelosuppression.

Question 31

Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil?

A) Platelet
B) Phagocyte
C) Plasma protein
D) Oxygen carrier

Question 32

Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc,hemoglobin,and erythropoietin?

A) Granulocyte
B) Thrombocyte
C) "Poly"
D) Red blood cell

Question 33

Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?

A) Hemolysis
B) Coagulation
C) Crenation
D) Hemostasis

Question 34

Which cell is the "parent cell" of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow?

A) Erythrocyte
B) Leukocyte
C) Stem cell
D) Megakaryocyte

Question 35

Which type of blood is called the universal recipient?

A) Type O
B) Type AB
C) Type A
D) Type B

Question 36

Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy (removal of the stomach)develop pernicious anemia?

A) The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression.
B) Iron absorption is impaired.
C) A major source of erythropoietin has been removed.
D) Vitamin B12 absorption is impaired because of the lack of intrinsic factor.

Question 37

Which type of blood is called the universal donor?

A) O
B) AB
C) A
D) B

Question 38

Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of which substance?

A) Iron
B) Bilirubin
C) Fibrinogen
D) Albumin

Question 39

Bilirubin is a breakdown product of

A) leukocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.

Question 40

Which of the following is most descriptive of the physiological role of the "poly"?

A) Oxygen transport
B) Phagocytosis
C) Bilirubin metabolism
D) Clot dissolution

Question 41

Both the red blood cell and white blood cell

A) are classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes.
B) contain iron that acts as a binding site for oxygen.
C) contain hemoglobin.
D) are produced in the bone marrow.

Question 42

Which of the following does the prothrombin time measure?

A) The amount of oxygen in the blood
B) Clotting activity of the blood
C) Bone marrow activity
D) The degree or intensity of jaundice

Question 43

Donor blood is typed and cross-matched with the recipient's blood to prevent which conditions?

A) Infection and leukocytosis
B) Myelosuppression and aplastic anemia
C) Agglutination and hemolysis
D) Petechiae formation and ecchymosis

Question 44

What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?

A) Anticoagulant
B) Antiplatelet
C) "Clot buster" (thrombolytic)
D) Antihistamine

Question 45

The word icterus refers to

A) infection.
B) bleeding.
C) jaundice.
D) fever.

Question 46

Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen?

A) The blood clots, or coagulates.
B) The blood clot dissolves.
C) Red blood cells agglutinate.
D) Jaundice develops.

Question 47

At the end of 120 days,the red blood cell

A) is removed from the circulation and broken down.
B) becomes known as a "poly."
C) becomes known as a reticulocyte.
D) is converted to fibrin.

Question 48

Plasma

A) gives blood its red color.
B) is the primary oxygen-carrying part of the blood.
C) is considered intracellular fluid.
D) is the fluid part of the blood.

Question 49

Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?

A) High fever
B) Infection
C) Jaundice
D) Bleeding

Question 50

Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression?

A) Drugs, especially the anticancer drugs
B) Bed rest
C) Dietary deficiencies
D) Hereditary abnormalities of the bone marrow

Question 51

Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis?

A) Heparin
B) Calcium
C) Hemophilic factor
D) Vitamin K

Question 52

Which of the following is most descriptive of the cause of hemophilia?

A) Dietary induced
B) Genetically induced
C) Drug-induced myelosuppression
D) Anemia of chronic renal failure

Question 53

Which function is most associated with fibrinogen,prothrombin,and calcium?

A) Blood coagulation
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Fibrinolysis
D) Blood cell production

Question 54

To which component of the red blood cell does oxygen loosely bind?

A) Cell membrane
B) Globin portion of the hemoglobin
C) Iron molecule within heme
D) Bilirubin component of the heme

Question 55

What does the hematocrit measure?

A) Phagocytic activity
B) Blood-clotting activity
C) Percentage of red blood cells in the blood
D) The amount of bilirubin in the blood

Question 56

Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?

A) Bleeding
B) Infection
C) Jaundice
D) Thrombosis

Question 57

Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?

A) The average man has 4 to 6 L of blood.
B) The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
C) Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxygenated blood.
D) Water is three to five times more viscous than blood.

Question 58

Which of the following is most likely to be caused by the immobility of bed rest?

A) Venous thrombosis
B) Hemophilia
C) Anemia
D) Myelosuppression

Question 59

Which of the following is most likely to be depressed in the myelosuppressed patient?

A) Prothrombin
B) Albumin
C) White blood cells
D) Myelin sheath

Question 60

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause erythroblastosis?

A) The baby is Rh- and the mother is Rh-.
B) The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh+.
C) The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-.
D) The baby is Rh- and the mother is Rh+.

Question 61

Which group is incorrect?

A) Steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation
B) Antigens: A, B, Rh factor
C) Blood cells: fibrinogen, albumin, globulins
D) Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell

Question 62

Which group is incorrect?

A) Results of myelosuppression: granulocytopenia, aplastic anemia, hemophilia
B) Antigens: A, B, Rh factor
C) White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes
D) Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins

Question 63

The anemia of chronic kidney failure is

A) caused by bone marrow depression.
B) treated with EPO (erythropoietin).
C) characterized by an elevated hematocrit.
D) treated with IM injections of vitamin B12.

Question 64

Petechiae formation

A) is characteristic of sickle cell anemia.
B) is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K.
C) refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin.
D) is caused by a deficiency of reticulocytes.

Question 65

Which of the following is descriptive of leukocytes?

A) Fight infection
B) Include granulocytes and nongranulocytes
C) Include phagocytes
D) All of the above

Question 66

Chronic hypoxemia is most likely to induce

A) leukocytosis.
B) secondary polycythemia.
C) platelet stickiness.
D) jaundice.

Question 67

Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving

A) myelosuppression.
B) lack of intrinsic factor.
C) inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin.
D) agglutination and hemolysis.

Question 68

Which anticoagulant is secreted by mast cells (basophils)?

A) Plasmin
B) EPO
C) Vitamin K
D) Heparin

Question 69

Segs,polys,and band cells are

A) immature red blood cells.
B) agranulocytes.
C) fragments of megakaryocytes.
D) neutrophils.

Question 70

Neutrophils,basophils,and eosinophils are all

A) lymphocytes.
B) granulocytes.
C) phagocytic.
D) heparin secreting.

Question 71

A deficiency of intrinsic factor

A) decreases the absorption of vitamin K by the digestive tract.
B) causes hemolysis and jaundice.
C) is evidenced by a prolonged prothrombin time.
D) causes a type of anemia that is treated with vitamin B12.

Question 72

Which group is incorrect?

A) Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins
B) Antigens: A, B, Rh factor
C) Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell
D) White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes, megakaryocytes

Question 73

Prothrombin,thrombin,and fibrinogen

A) form the platelet plug.
B) activate factor VIII (antihemophilic factor).
C) are involved in coagulation.
D) are responsible for agglutination.

Question 74

Rapid hemolysis causes

A) hypoxemia and cyanosis.
B) thrombocytopenia and bleeding.
C) hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
D) myelosuppression and infection.

Question 75

Neutrophils and monocytes

A) are megakaryocytes.
B) initiate the hemostatic mechanism.
C) engage in phagocytosis.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 76

Which of the following is true of iron?

A) Is in the heme part of hemoglobin
B) Is necessary for erythropoiesis
C) Binds reversibly to oxygen
D) All of the above

Question 77

Erythropoietin

A) is synthesized in the bone marrow.
B) stimulates the bone marrow to make RBCs.
C) stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb iron from the urine.
D) stimulates the digestive tract to absorb iron.

Question 78

Which of the following is characteristic of erythrocytes?

A) Formed by myeloid erythropoiesis
B) Deficiency causes petechiae and bleeding
C) Activation characterized by stickiness and formation of a plug
D) Primarily concerned with phagocytosis

Question 79

Which of the following is most likely to be characterized by severe pain,organ damage,and hemolysis?

A) A shift to the left
B) Neutropenia
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Hypoprothrombinemia

Question 80

Which of the following is most similar to fibrinolysis?

A) Coagulation
B) Petechiae formation
C) Myelosuppression
D) Thrombolytic effect