Deck 5: Cardiovascular Agents

Question 1

Which of the following is least likely to affect blood pressure?

A) Doxazosin
B) Prazosin
C) Tamsulosin
D) Terazosin

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of clonidine?

A) Bradycardia
B) Constipation
C) Drowsiness
D) Peripheral edema

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is not a therapeutic use for lisinopril?

A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Diabetic nephropathy
C) Heart failure
D) Hypertension

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is a reasonable dose for ramipril?

A) 0.25 mg BID
B) 2.5 mg daily
C) 25 mg daily
D) 25 mg BID

Question 5

All of the following are appropriate monitoring parameters for valsartan, EXCEPT:

A) Potassium
B) Renal function
C) Cough
D) Angioedema

Question 6

All of the following are appropriate monitoring parameters for digoxin, EXCEPT:

A) AST/ALT
B) ECG
C) Potassium
D) Renal function

Question 7

Which of the following is a usual maintenance dose for amiodarone?

A) 50 mg daily
B) 200 mg daily
C) 400 mg q8h
D) 10 grams daily

Question 8

Which of the following should be monitored in patients taking sotalol?

A) AST/ALT
B) PFTs
C) SCr
D) TSH

Question 9

Which of the following is a β-1 selective β-blocker?

A) Atenolol
B) Carvedilol
C) Labetalol
D) Propranolol

Question 10

All of the following are brand names for diltiazem, EXCEPT:

A) Cardene
B) Cartia XT
C) Cardizem
D) Tiazac

Question 11

Nifedipine is used for which of the following indications?

A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Chronic stable angina
D) Heart Failure

Question 12

Verapamil increases the effects of all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Digoxin
B) Dofetilide
C) Fluconazole
D) Simvastatin

Question 13

Nitroglycerin transdermal patches should be removed to ensure a "nitrate-free interval" of:

A) 8 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours

Question 14

Adverse effects of spironolactone include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Gynecomastia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Lupus-like syndrome
D) Renal dysfunction

Question 15

All of the following are thiazide diuretics, EXCEPT:

A) Chlordiazepoxide
B) Chlorothiazide
C) Chlorthalidone
D) Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 16

Which of the following is a usual dose for hydralazine?

A) 25 mcg daily
B) 25 mg TID
C) 75 mg daily
D) 75 mg Q3H

Question 17

Which of the following is not an essential monitoring parameter of amiodarone?

A) Pulmonary function tests
B) Liver function tests
C) Thyroid
D) Renal function

Question 18

Which of the following are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A) Enalapril
B) Lisinopril
C) Losartan
D) All of the above

Question 19

Verapamil is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Patients on hemodialysis
B) Patients receiving dofetilide therapy
C) Patients with second- or third-degree heart block
D) Patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction/heart failure

Question 20

All of the following should be monitored for patients on furosemide, EXCEPT:

A) Blood pressure
B) Cardiac output
C) Electrolytes (K, Mag)
D) Renal function (SCr, urine output)

Question 21

Loop diuretics are most often used for which of the following indications?

A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Heart failure
C) Hypertension
D) Peripheral vascular disease

Question 22

Nitroglycerin should not be administered to which of the following patients?

A) Patients who have recently taken sildenafil, tadalafil, or vardenafil
B) Patients with systolic blood pressure < 90mmHg
C) Patients with acute right ventricular infarction
D) All of the above

Question 23

Patients receiving sublingual nitroglycerin should be told all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Place under tongue and allow to dissolve
B) If no relief after 1 dose, call 9-1-1 immediately
C) Store in original container away from humidity and moisture
D) Take daily with or without symptoms of angina

Question 24

Milrinone is used for which of the following indications?

A) Acute decompensated heart failure
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Hypotension/shock
D) Ventricular arrhythmias

Question 25

Milrinone directly produces which of the following effects?

A) Increased contractility and cardiac output
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased urine output
D) Increased vasoconstriction and blood pressure

Question 26

Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for spironolactone?

A) Aldosterone antagonist
B) Beta blocker
C) Loop diuretic
D) Thiazide diuretic

Question 27

Which of the following must be monitored closely in patients receiving spironolactone?

A) Calcium
B) Hemoglobin
C) Potassium
D) WBC

Question 28

Thiazide diuretics are used for which of the following indications?

A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Hypertension
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Ventricular arrhythmias

Question 29

Hydrochlorothiazide is less effective in patients with which of the following?

A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hepatic dysfunction
D) Renal dysfunction (CrCl < 30ml/min)

Question 30

Nitrate therapy is given in combination with which of the following in patients with heart failure?

A) Atenolol
B) Hydralazine
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Nifedipine

Question 31

Which of the following statements regarding nitroprusside therapy is false?

A) Nitroprusside is short acting and can be easily titrated.
B) Primary indication for use is hypotension/shock.
C) The risk of toxicity is increased with prolonged infusions and high doses.
D) Monitoring parameters include BP and signs/symptoms of toxicity.

Question 32

The typical starting dose of nitroprusside is:

A) 0.2 mcg/kg/min
B) 2 mcg/kg/min
C) 0.2 mg/kg/min
D) 2 mg/kg/min

Question 33

Which of the following is not a combination therapy available on the market?

A) Amlodipine/benazepril
B) Carvedilol/enalapril
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide
D) Valsartan/hydrochlorothiazide

Question 34

Which of the following beta blockers is NOT recommended for patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction to reduce morbidity and mortality?

A) Atenolol
B) Bisoprolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Metoprolol succinate