Deck 18: Computed Tomography

Question 1

Which structure of the neuron carries electric impulses away from the cell body?

A) Axon
B) Dendrite
C) Nerve cell
D) Multipolar neuron

Answer 1

Axon

Question 2

The common lumbar puncture site is located at the vertebra level of:

A) T12-L1.
B) L1-2.
C) L3-4.
D) L4-5.

Answer 2

L3-4.

Question 3

Which layer of the meninges is located closest to the brain?

A) Pia mater
B) Dura mater
C) Epidural mater
D) Arachnoid mater

Answer 3

Pia mater

Question 4

On the average,how much CSF is formed daily?

A) 100 mL
B) 150 mL
C) 400 mL
D) 500 mL

Question 5

The two divisions of the central nervous system include the brain and:

A) meninges.
B) spinal cord.
C) spinal nerves.
D) neurons.

Question 6

The cerebrum is divided into five lobes.

Question 7

Which of the following structures is attached to the roof of the third ventricle?

A) Pineal gland
B) Pituitary gland
C) Fourth ventricle
D) Lateral recess

Question 8

Which of the ventricles is located directly superior to the cistern cerebellomedullaris?

A) Lateral
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Second

Question 9

What is the name of the tapered,terminal part of the spinal cord?

A) Medulla spinalis
B) Encephalon
C) Axon
D) Conus medullaris

Question 10

Another term for the insula is the central lobe.

Question 11

What type of neuron conducts electric impulses toward the cell body?

A) Axon
B) Dendrite
C) Nerve cell
D) Multipolar neuron

Question 12

What is the name of the channels located between the cranium and dura mater that contain blood?

A) Subdural space
B) Epidural space
C) Dural mater sinuses
D) Subarachnoid space

Question 13

Along with the posterior pituitary gland and the infundibulum,what other structure or region is associated with the hypothalamus?

A) Thalamus
B) Olfactory nerve
C) Optic chiasm
D) Falx cerebri

Question 14

What is the name of the deep fissure that separates the two cerebral hemispheres?

A) Longitudinal fissure
B) Central sulcus
C) Posterior, central sulcus
D) Falx cerebri

Question 15

At what vertebral level is the tapered,terminal part of the spinal cord found?

A) Lower border of T10
B) L4-5 joint space
C) Lower border of L1
D) S1-2

Question 16

What is the name of the passageway from the third to fourth ventricle?

A) Foramen of Monro
B) Interventricular foramen
C) Cerebral aqueduct
D) Foramen of Luschka

Question 17

Which meningeal space contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) Subdural space
B) Subarachnoid space
C) Pia space
D) Cerebral fluid space

Question 18

Which of the following is not a major division of the brain?

A) Forebrain
B) Posterior brain
C) Hindbrain
D) Midbrain

Question 19

What is the name of the white brain structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

A) Central sulcus
B) Falx cerebri
C) Corpus callosum
D) Insula

Question 20

A condition caused by an abnormal amount of CSF in the ventricles is termed:

A) cerebral atrophy.
B) hydrocephalus.
C) pneumoencephalos.
D) encephalitis.

Question 21

Which of the following is not one of the cerebral nuclei or basal ganglia?

A) Thalamus
B) Caudate nucleus
C) Lentiform nucleus
D) Claustrum

Question 22

Which of the following is not a major cranial nerve?

A) Olfactory
B) Vagus
C) Sensory
D) Abducens

Question 23

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the cerebellum?

A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Basal ganglia
D) Vermis

Question 24

What is the name of the site where some optic nerve fibers cross in the brain?

A) Cisterna magna
B) Pons
C) Cisterna pontis
D) Optic chiasma

Question 25

Visual centers in the brain are located in the ____ lobe of the cerebrum.

A) parietal
B) occipital
C) insula
D) frontal

Question 26

Which of the following structures is not part of the brainstem?

A) Cerebellum
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Medulla

Question 27

Which generation of CT scanner first used a fixed ring of detectors?

A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) None of the above

Question 28

Which of the following statements is not an advantage of CT (computed tomography)over conventional imaging?

A) Can adjust the contrast or gray scale
B) Can display anatomy in a series of slices
C) Can measure attenuation of specific tissues
D) Exposes the patient to less radiation

Question 29

Which of the following structures filters the blood to produce CSF?

A) Choroid plexus
B) Arachnoid granulations
C) Arachnoid villi
D) Ventricles

Question 30

Hemianopia is a condition defined as:

A) blindness occurring in half of the visual field in each eye.
B) an iron deficiency producing intracranial bleeding.
C) a congenital tumor in the thalamus.
D) an abnormal collection of CSF in the cranial ventricles.

Question 31

Which of the following structures is a white brain matter structure?

A) Basal ganglia
B) Cerebral cortex
C) Centrum semiovale
D) Thalamus

Question 32

Which of the following structures is not part of the hindbrain?

A) Cerebellum
B) Pons
C) Hypothalamus
D) Medulla

Question 33

What is the major advantage of volume CT over standard CT imaging?

A) Generates less tube heat units
B) Allows cardiovascular scanning because of shorter scanning times
C) Allows a volume of tissue to be examined rather than individual slices only
D) Requires less dose be given to the patient

Question 34

What is the name for the enlarged regions of the subarachnoid space?

A) Cisterns
B) Subdural space
C) Centrum semiovale
D) Optic chiasma

Question 35

The capability to create accurate reconstruction of patient data into alternative planes (coronal,sagittal,three-dimensional)is termed:

A) multiple image reconstruction.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) algorithmic reconstruction.
D) multiplanar reconstruction.

Question 36

Artifacts caused by patient motion are reduced with volume CT scanning as compared with earlier generation scanners.

Question 37

Major functions of the cerebellum include:

A) regulation of body temperature.
B) visual perception.
C) coordination, posture, and balance.
D) regulation of blood pressure.

Question 38

How many pairs of cranial nerves are found in the brain?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 7

Question 39

Which aspect of the forebrain serves as an interpretation center for pain,temperature,and touch?

A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Pons
D) Cerebellum

Question 40

Which of the following structures is also called the hypophysis?

A) Pineal gland
B) Pons
C) Cerebral peduncles
D) Pituitary gland

Question 41

Current multislice CT scanners can acquire up to 320 slices per x-ray tube rotation.

Question 42

Most CT systems archive image data on magnetic tape systems.

Question 43

What specifically do the CT detectors measure?

A) Attenuation
B) Patient dose
C) Primary radiation
D) Scatter radiation

Question 44

Which of the following pathologic indications would NOT apply to head CT?

A) Subdural hematoma
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Aneurysm
D) Brain atrophy

Question 45

The gantry houses the x-ray tube and the detector array.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a multislice CT scanner?

A) Has fast imaging speed
B) Acquires large number of slices rapidly
C) Minimizes patient motion
D) Reduces patient dose

Question 47

Oxygen deprivation to the brain for 4 minutes can lead to permanent brain cell injury.

Question 48

Window width controls the displayed image contrast.

Question 49

Glucose and oxygen are able to pass through the blood-brain barrier.

Question 50

What controls the actual slice thickness on multislice CT scanners?

A) Filament of x-ray tube
B) Postpatient collimator
C) Size of the detector row used
D) Prepatient collimator

Question 51

Which of the following conditions may be a contraindication for head CT?

A) Epidural hematoma
B) Intracranial hemorrhage
C) Brain abscess
D) Sensitivity to iodinated contrast media

Question 52

Window level (WL)in CT controls the displayed image contrast.

Question 53

Multislice CT is not recommended for abdomen studies.

Question 54

Which medium serves as the baseline for CT numbers?

A) Air
B) Water
C) Muscle
D) Fat

Question 55

The ratio between the relationship between table speed and slice thickness defines:

A) differential absorption.
B) pitch.
C) voxel.
D) display matrix.

Question 56

Approximately ____ of all head CTs generally require intravenous contrast media.

A) 10% to 30%
B) 30% to 50%
C) 50% to 90%
D) None of the above; all require contrast media.

Question 57

The three-dimensional volume of tissue in a slice is called a voxel.

Question 58

Muscular structures seen on a CT image would appear:

A) white.
B) black.
C) gray.
D) dark gray.

Question 59

What is the pitch for the following parameters: couch movement of 10 mm/second and slice thickness per 360° rotation of 20 mm?

A) 0.5:1
B) 2:1
C) 1:2
D) 1:1.5

Question 60

Which of the following pitch ratios is considered to be oversampling?

A) 2:1
B) 3:1
C) 0.5:1
D) 1:1

Question 61

The success rate for CT percutaneous abscess drainage is reported to be:

A) 20%.
B) 30%.
C) 50%.
D) 85%.

Question 62

A predetermined procedure is the definition for:

A) procedure.
B) protocol.
C) scan parameter.
D) technique.

Question 63

Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners.

Question 64

Which window widths are CT head scans viewed?

A) Soft-tissue window
B) Bony window
C) Gray and white matter windows
D) Both A and B

Question 65

A lower pitch ratio such as a 2.0:1 ratio with slice overlap leads to a reduced patient dose.

Question 66

What is the chief disadvantage of CT colonography over conventional endoscopy?

A) Cost
B) Inability to biopsy or remove polyps
C) Bowel preparation required
D) Time consuming procedure

Question 67

How long is the catheter left in place following a percutaneous abscess drainage (PAD)procedure?

A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 to 48 hours

Question 68

Volume acquisition CT slices cannot be reformatted as 3-D images.

Question 69

CT angiography (CTA)does not require the use of intravenous contrast media to demonstrate vascular structures.

Question 70

CT colonography has eliminated the need for the patient undergoing a bowel prep.

Question 71

Which one of the following pathologic indications for a head CT is directly related to trauma?

A) Hydrocephalus
B) Brain atrophy
C) Brain abscess
D) Subdural hematoma

Question 72

CT fluoroscopy can obtain and display partially reconstructed images at a rate of _____ images per second.

A) 1 to 3
B) 6 to 8
C) 8 to 12
D) 20 to 25

Question 73

Hydrocephalus is caused by:

A) blockage of the cranial blood vessel.
B) blockage of the drainage of CSF.
C) trauma to the head.
D) congenital abnormality.

Question 74

Special filters can be used during CT fluoroscopy to reduce patient skin dose during biopsies.

Question 75

Typical slice thickness for a spine CT range is usually no greater than _____ mm.

A) 3
B) 7
C) 10
D) 15

Question 76

Prospective electrocardiogram (ECG)gating used during cardiac CT permits the heart to be scanned:

A) during maximum cardiac contraction.
B) while tricuspid and mitral valves are open.
C) during the diastole cycle.
D) during the systole cycle.

Question 77

Biopsies can be performed during a CT colonography.

Question 78

Which one of the following pitch ratios represents undersampling?

A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 0.5:1
D) 0.7:1

Question 79

A CT colonography requires the use of ________ as a contrast medium.

A) barium sulfate
B) iodinated rectal contrast
C) air
D) all of the above

Question 80

A collection of blood accumulating under the dura mater caused by trauma is termed:

A) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
B) glioma.
C) subdural abscess.
D) subdural hematoma.