Deck 19: Special Radiographic Procedures

Question 1

The uterine (fallopian)tubes are approximately ____ cm in length.

A) 3 to 4
B) 6 to 8
C) 10 to 12
D) 15 to 18

Answer 1

10 to 12

Question 2

CT and MRI arthrography has significantly reduced the number of radiographic arthrograms performed.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)can either be a diagnostic or a therapeutic procedure.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

Which of the following conditions is often a contraindication for an ERCP?

A) Pseudocyst
B) Biliary stenosis
C) Hepatitis
D) Cirrhosis

Question 5

Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography?

A) A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker's cyst.
B) A minimum of 20 mL of positive contrast media is introduced into joint.
C) During fluoroscopy, views are taken of each meniscus with the knee rotated 30° between exposures.
D) The amount of aspirated joint (synovial) fluid should equal the amount of injected contrast media.

Question 6

What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube)cholangiogram?

A) Jaundice
B) Pancreatitis
C) Chronic cholecystitis
D) Residual calculi

Question 7

During an arthrogram why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?

A) To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media
B) To force the contrast media outside of the joint if there is a tear
C) To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media
D) None of the above; the knee should not be flexed during an arthrogram after injection of contrast media.

Question 8

Intercondylar fossa projections are often required during a conventional knee arthrogram.

Question 9

Which of the four divisions of the uterus is the largest?

A) Fundus
B) Corpus (body)
C) Isthmus
D) Cervix

Question 10

Which of the four segments of the uterine tube communicates with the uterine cavity?

A) Interstitial
B) Isthmus
C) Ampulla
D) Infundibulum

Question 11

The patient must be NPO ____ hours (minimum)before a postoperative (T-tube)cholangiogram?

A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12

Question 12

The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by a:

A) radiologist.
B) radiologic technologist.
C) gastroenterologist.
D) surgeon.

Question 13

The patient must remain NPO (nothing by mouth)a minimum of 8 hours following an ERCP.

Question 14

The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile.

Question 15

What imaging modality is most frequently used to study the soft tissue structures of the temporomandibular joint?

A) CT (computed tomography)
B) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
C) Conventional radiography
D) Ultrasound

Question 16

Which of the following instruments is not required during a knee arthrogram?

A) Sterile gauze
B) 10-mL syringe
C) 20-gauge needle
D) Arthroscope

Question 17

Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography?

A) Injury or tears to rotator cuff
B) Evaluate for Baker's cyst
C) Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments
D) Injury or tears to menisci

Question 18

A common fluoroscopy routine for knee arthrography is:

A) nine views of each menisci rotated 20° between exposures.
B) nine views total of each knee rotated 20° between exposures.
C) six views each of lateral and medial menisci rotated 20° between exposures.
D) horizontal beam projections, six exposures per knee.

Question 19

Which of the following projections would NOT be commonly performed during a shoulder arthrogram?

A) Anteroposterior external/internal rotation projections
B) Scapular Y projection
C) Glenoid fossa projection
D) Transaxillary projection

Question 20

What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?

A) 2 inches, 16 gauge
B) 1 1/2 inches, 18 gauge
C) 2 inches, 25 gauge
D) 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle

Question 21

Arachnoiditis is a clinical indication for a myelogram procedure.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a valid radiographic criterion for hysterosalpingography?

A) Cannula or balloon catheter should be seen within the cervix.
B) Ovaries should be opacified and well demonstrated.
C) Contrast medium should be seen within the peritoneum.
D) The pelvic ring should be centered within the collimation field.

Question 23

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone,why is a positioning block (bolster)placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

A) To force the contrast media toward the head
B) For patient comfort
C) To widen the interspinous spaces
D) To prevent reflux of contrast media back into the syringe

Question 24

What is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram?

A) Benign tumors
B) Malignant tumors
C) HNP
D) Increased intracranial pressure

Question 25

Which of the following is a contraindication to hysterosalpingography?

A) Pregnancy
B) Active uterine bleeding
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) All of the above

Question 26

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography?

A) Arachnoiditis
B) Blood in the CSF
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) All of the above

Question 27

Most disk pathology of the spine occurs in the cervical and lumbar regions.

Question 28

The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelography is:

A) patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral, left and right lateral decubitus (AP and PA), and PA projection.
B) patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA).
C) patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral.
D) patient supine: semierect AP and horizontal beam lateral.

Question 29

The preferred contrast medium for hysterosalpingography is:

A) positive, ionic, oil based.
B) positive, nonionic, water soluble.
C) negative carbon dioxide gas.
D) thin barium sulfate.

Question 30

The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the:

A) interior of the cervix, uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries.
B) interior of the uterus for neoplasms or other abnormalities.
C) uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes.
D) degree of openness of the cornu between the uterus and uterine tubes.

Question 31

What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram?

A) Iodinated, oil based
B) Room air
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nonionic, water soluble

Question 32

Which part of the uterine tube opens into the peritoneal cavity?

A) Isthmus
B) Interstitial
C) Infundibulum
D) None of the above

Question 33

What is the most common injection site for a myelogram?

A) C1-2
B) T12
C) L4-5
D) L3-4

Question 34

Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram?

A) Subarachnoid space
B) Epidural space
C) Subdural space
D) Spinal cord

Question 35

Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous:

A) 2 weeks.
B) 3 weeks.
C) 30 days.
D) 6 months.

Question 36

What is an average dosage of contrast media given during a myelogram?

A) 1 to 2 mL
B) 3 to 4 mL
C) 9 to 15 mL
D) 20 to 24 mL

Question 37

Other than prone,what additional position is recommended for a cervical puncture?

A) Erect-seated
B) Left lateral decubitus
C) Right lateral decubitus
D) Trendelenburg

Question 38

How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram?

A) Withdrawn through a needle/syringe
B) Remains in the spinal canal
C) Excreted by the kidneys
D) Excreted by the lungs

Question 39

The fingerlike extensions termed fimbriae connect to which part of the uterine tube?

A) Interstitial
B) Isthmus
C) Ampulla
D) Infundibulum

Question 40

Imaging for a hysterosalpingography includes centering of the CR and image receptor (IR)to:

A) 4 inches (10 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.
B) the symphysis pubis.
C) the level of the ASIS.
D) 2 inches (5 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.

Question 41

Linear tomography is primarily used for studies of the sternum.

Question 42

The chief disadvantage of CT scanograms as compared with orthoroentgenography is:

A) distortion of joints due to penumbra.
B) artifacts from special ruler placed in gantry.
C) CT involves high cost and specialized equipment.
D) CT produces a poor image of bones.

Question 43

Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical myelography following fluoroscopy and spot imaging?

A) Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer's lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal beam
B) Patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA)
C) Patient prone: PA horizontal beam and swimmer's lateral of C6 or C7
D) Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral and swimmer's horizontal beam lateral centered to C7

Question 44

Which of the following conditions will produce incomplete blurring of unwanted anatomy in the tomographic image?

A) Placing object parallel to tube movement
B) Placing object perpendicular to tube movement
C) Using kV that is too low
D) Using an exposure time that is too short

Question 45

What is the name of the special ruler used in orthoroentgenography?

A) Long bone ruler
B) Shepard-Logan ruler
C) Bell-Thompson ruler
D) Myer-Smith ruler

Question 46

Objects within the body that are farther from the objective plane have:

A) greater movement.
B) increased blurring.
C) less blurring.
D) both A and B.

Question 47

Gonadal shielding cannot be used for long bone measurement of the lower limb for male or female.

Question 48

Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram?

A) Patient discomfort at puncture site
B) Contrast media may leak from puncture site
C) Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region
D) Excessive radiation exposure to anterior chest structures

Question 49

Which one of the following is not a factor that directly controls or influences the amount of tomographic blurring?

A) Tomographic amplitude
B) Objective plane
C) Object-IR distance
D) Exposure angle

Question 50

The pivot point between the x-ray tube and IR in a tomographic system is termed:

A) amplitude.
B) fulcrum.
C) tube trajectory.
D) objective plane.

Question 51

The wrist should be placed into the pronated PA position for a long bone study of the upper limb.

Question 52

The literal definition of "orthoroentgenography" is:

A) long bone measurement.
B) straight or right-angle to radiography.
C) joint radiography.
D) extremity study.

Question 53

Which of the following exposure angles will produce the thinnest sectional thickness?

A) 10°
B) 20°
C) 30°
D) 40°

Question 54

The total distance the x-ray tube travels is termed:

A) amplitude.
B) fulcrum.
C) exposure angle.
D) fulcrum level.

Question 55

Objects within the body above and below the focal plane appear blurred because:

A) they are not placed parallel to the direction of tube travel.
B) their images move from one part of the IR to another as the tube and IR move through their travel during the exposure.
C) they are situated too close to the focal plane.
D) the body part is too large for sufficient penetration of x-rays.

Question 56

Objects within the objective plane will appear:

A) blurred.
B) sharp and in relative focus.
C) as radiolucent densities.
D) as streaks.

Question 57

A Bucky grid should be used for lower limb orthoroentgenograms,and non-Bucky IRs should be taken for upper limbs.

Question 58

Which of the following factors is critical when performing orthoroentgenography?

A) The patient should not move between exposures.
B) Short exposure time techniques must be used.
C) A long source IR distance (SID) must be used for less beam divergence.
D) Both right and left limbs must be examined at the same time for length comparisons.

Question 59

Long bone measurement of the lower limb requires that the entire lower limb be included on each radiograph.

Question 60

A limb-shortening surgical procedure is termed:

A) epiphysiodesis.
B) limbectomy.
C) epiphysioectomy.
D) diaphysiodeses.

Question 61

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
The plane where the target anatomy is clear

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude

Question 62

More blurring occurs with a shorter exposure angle.

Question 63

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
The total distance the x-ray tube travels

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude

Question 64

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
The pivot point between tube and IR

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude

Question 65

Another term for tomography is:

A) computed tomography.
B) orthoroentgenography.
C) body section radiography.
D) orthostatic radiography.

Question 66

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
Radiograph produced by a tomographic unit

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude

Question 67

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
The factor that determines slice thickness

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude

Question 68

The primary factor affecting the sectional thickness,as controlled by the operator,is exposure angle.

Question 69

MATCHING
Match each of the following tomographic terms with its correct definition.(Use each term only once.)
Distortion of objects outside the objective plane

A)Objective plane
B)Exposure angle
C)Tomogram
D)Blur
E)Fulcrum
F)Amplitude