Deck 9: Cognitive Ability: Group Tests

Question 1

Which is NOT one of the main settings for use of group administered cognitive ability tests?

A) elementary and secondary schools
B) business and military
C) college, graduate, and professional school
D) hospitals and clinics

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Group administered cognitive ability tests are used in elementary and secondary schools mainly in conjunction with ___.

A) teacher-made tests
B) personality inventories
C) individually administered cognitive ability tests
D) standardized achievement tests

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What is the typical administration time for a group administered cognitive ability test?

A) 20 minutes
B) 2 hours
C) either 1 or 3 hours
D) more than 5 hours

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which type of content found in individually administered cognitive ability tests is usually NOT found in group administered cognitive ability tests?

A) vocabulary
B) short-term memory
C) arithmetic reasoning
D) verbal relations

Question 5

In comparison with the research bases (e.g., size of norm groups) for individually administered cognitive ability tests, the research bases for group administered cognitive ability tests tend to be ___.

A) much smaller
B) much larger
C) about the same
D) no generalization is possible on this matter

Question 6

The most common purpose for use of group administered cognitive ability tests is ___.

A) diagnosis
B) research
C) prediction
D) instruction

Question 7

What is the approximate administration time for OLSAT8?

A) 15 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours

Question 8

Who usually administers a group administered cognitive ability test like the Otis-Lennon?

A) principal
B) teacher
C) parent
D) school psychologist

Question 9

The two major content divisions of the Otis-Lennon are ___.

A) verbal and nonverbal
B) spatial and memory
C) figural and quantitative
D) quantitative and verbal

Question 10

The School Ability Index (SAI) yielded by the Otis-Lennon is a type of ___.

A) reliability coefficient
B) validity coefficient
C) percentile rank
D) standard score

Question 11

The Anticipated Achievement Comparison (AAC) for the Otis-Lennon compares scores on the Otis-Lennon with scores on a(n) -

A) self-esteem rating
B) teacher-made test
C) individual cognitive ability test
D) standardized achievement test

Question 12

Which organization sponsors development of the SAT?

A) ACT
B) U. S. Army
C) College Board
D) Psychological Corporation

Question 13

Which is one of major tests within the SAT?

A) Creative Thinking
B) Mathematics
C) Social Studies
D) Science

Question 14

The well-known score scale on the SAT, with M = 500 and SD = 100, is what type of score?

A) normal curve equivalent
B) percentile rank
C) grade equivalent
D) standard score

Question 15

What was traditionally called the Verbal test in the SAT is now, in the 2016 version, called the ___.

A) Essay Test
B) Enhanced Verbal Test
C) Evidenced-based Reading and Writing Test
D) Creative Writing and Reasoning Test

Question 16

The most widely reported percentile norms for the SAT are a good example of ___.

A) true national norms
B) subgroup norms
C) institutional norms
D) user norms

Question 17

The ACT Assessment's general approach to test content emphasizes ___.

A) school-based skills
B) generalized abilities
C) motivation and effort
D) elementary cognitive tasks

Question 18

Which is NOT one of the major tests in the ACT Assessment?

A) English
B) Reading
C) Nonverbal
D) Mathematics

Question 19

Standard scores on each of the four major tests in the ACT Assessment range from ___.

A) 200-800
B) 1-99
C) 1-36
D) 12-60

Question 20

The most typical design for studies of the validity of college admissions tests involves correlating scores on the tests with ___.

A) freshman year GPA
B) other admissions tests
C) senior year GPA
D) GRE scores

Question 21

In comparison with the correlation of high school rank with college freshman GPA, the correlation of college admission test scores with freshman GPA is ___.

A) higher
B) lower
C) about the same
D) We don't know because this matter has not been studied.

Question 22

The multiple correlation (uncorrected for range restriction or unreliability) of college admissions test score and high school rank with freshman year GPA is usually about ___.

A) .10
B) .50
C) .75
D) .95

Question 23

The principal purpose of college admissions tests such as the SAT and ACT is to predict success in college. Recently, they have also been used to ___.

A) define institutional images for colleges
B) certify students for high school graduation
C) identify high school students needing remedial work
D) select military recruits

Question 24

What are the three major tests within the GRE: General Test?

A) figural, spatial, vocabulary
B) verbal, math, writing
C) reading, math, science
D) verbal, quantitative, analytical

Question 25

The GRE: General Tests are intended to be measures of ___.

A) knowledge acquired in specific college courses
B) developed abilities acquired over a long time
C) innate abilities
D) short-term memory

Question 26

The GRE: General Test score scale ranges from 130-170 on each test. What type of score scale is that?

A) normal curve equivalent
B) percentile rank
C) grade equivalent
D) standard score

Question 27

Percentile rank norms for the GRE are based on ___.

A) user norms
B) nationally representative norms
C) international norms
D) local norms

Question 28

Each of the GRE: General Tests has internal consistency reliability of approximately ___.

A) .50
B) .70
C) .90
D) .99

Question 29

The correlation between each of the GRE: General Tests and first-year graduate GPA is approximately ___.

A) .05
B) .10
C) .30
D) .75

Question 30

In comparison with undergraduate GPA as a predictor of graduate GPA, the Composite of the three GRE: General Tests is ___.

A) noticeably higher
B) noticeably lower
C) about the same
D) There is no way to make this comparison.

Question 31

In comparison with the GRE: General Test as a predictor of graduate GPA, the validities of the GRE: Subject Tests are generally ___.

A) higher
B) lower
C) about the same
D) There is no way to make this comparison

Question 32

What generalization was developed regarding predictive validity of the GRE: General test for different academic departments?

A) Validity is approximately the same for different departments.
B) Validity is much higher for humanities departments than for other departments.
C) Validity is much higher for science departments than for other departments.
D) The results are so varied that no generalization is possible.

Question 33

Which is NOT one of the tests identified in the textbook as a test used in military and business settings for personnel selection?

A) General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)
B) Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB)
C) Differential Aptitude Test (DAT)
D) Wechlser Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

Question 34

For most purposes the most important score coming from the ASVAB is the ___.

A) AFQT
B) SAI
C) IQ
D) Nonverbal

Question 35

Which word best describes the conclusion reached about the differential validity of ASVAB scores?

A) spectacular
B) modest
C) disappointing
D) uninvestigated

Question 36

Which phrase best describes the reliabilities of the subtests on the ASVAB?

A) uniformly high
B) uniformly low
C) uniformly moderate
D) quite varied

Question 37

Psychologists' attempts to build culture-fair tests began in the ___.

A) 1910s
B) 1930s
C) 1960s
D) 1990s

Question 38

Many people consider the Raven's test to be an excellent measure of ___.

A) "g"
B) "s"
C) verbal ability
D) quantitative ability

Question 39

How many scores does the Wonderlic Personnel Test yield?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 7
D) 12

Question 40

The Raven's test uses what type of item?

A) matrix-type
B) essay
C) free-response
D) grid-in type

Question 41

In general, tests intended to be culture-fair emphasize what type of content?

A) verbal
B) numerical
C) nonverbal
D) achievement

Question 42

For predicting success in most school and job settings, in comparison with traditional cognitive ability tests, tests intended as culture-fair tests have ___.

A) higher validity
B) lower validity
C) about the same validity
D) higher validity at younger ages but lower validity at older ages

Question 43

Total scores on widely used group tests of cognitive ability usually have _______ reliability.

A) very high
B) moderately high
C) moderately low
D) very low

Question 44

Predictive validities for group cognitive ability tests tend to be in what range?

A) -.30 to +.30
B) +.30 to +.60
C) +.60 to +.90
D) +.90 or higher

Question 45

Using various combinations of subtests to maximize the prediction of success in various academic programs or different jobs is called ___.

A) differential reliability
B) differential validity
C) combination reliability
D) combination validity

Question 46

We select for admission to a college the 50% of applicants with the highest admissions test scores. At the end of the freshman year, we determine the correlation between the admission test and freshman GPA. This is an ideal circumstance for observing the effect of ___.

A) range restriction
B) heteroscedasticity
C) local norms
D) split-half reliability

Question 47

Elementary cognitive tasks have been proposed as a type of ________ test.

A) verbal IQ
B) college admission
C) culture-fair
D) military selection

Question 48

Which of these tests has norms based on a carefully selected national sample?

A) SAT
B) ACT
C) GRE
D) ASVAB

Question 49

What is the time limit for the Wonderlic Cognitive Ability (Personnel) Test?

A) 3 minutes
B) 12 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) 3 hours

Question 50

The Wonderlic Personnel Test advertises itself as a measure of ___.

A) "g"
B) nonverbal ability
C) problem solving ability
D) hierarchical intelligence