Deck 24: Environmental and Industrial Microbiology

Question 1

What is the correct order in Ecological Hierarchy from most exclusive to most inclusive?
1) Individual organism
2) Biosphere
3) Ecosystem
4) Community
5) Population

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
C) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Characteristics of populations include _________________. (Select all that apply)

A) Being composed of individuals of the same species living in a specified area
B) A specific growth rate
C) Interspecific competition
D) predation

Answer 2

A,B

Question 3

Communities differ from populations in all of the following ways EXCEPT ________.

A) Communities are composed of multiple different populations
B) Communities participate in nutrient cycling which does not occur at the population level
C) Symbiotic relationships occur at the community level
D) Predation is a component of communities and not populations

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Ecosystem interactions include _____________________. (Select all that apply)

A) Communities and the abiotic properties of their geographic area
B) Energy acquisition
C) Nutrient cycling
D) Biome features

Question 5

A bacterial cell in a community is also a member of what other ecological level(s)?

A) The community only
B) A population and a community only
C) The community and biosphere only
D) All levels, from individual to biosphere

Question 6

Examine the image below and determine its level in the ecological hierarchy.

A) Population
B) Community
C) Ecosystem
D) Biosphere

Question 7

Earth's ecosystems are divided into _______________. (Select all that apply)

A) Aquatic
B) Atmospheric
C) Terrestrial
D) Subterranean

Question 8

The microbial species composition of a community is best determined by __________.

A) Sampling areas of the region with a swab and culturing the samples
B) Examining DNA samples from the region using metagenomics analysis
C) Sequencing 16S rRNA specimens collected in the community
D) Performing Western blot analysis on community samples

Question 9

Which of the following descriptions is NOT true of atmospheric communities?

A) there are 10⁴ to 10⁶ bacteria/m³
B) numbers of airborne bacteria may increase more than 75% in the heat and humidity of the summer because of rapid reproduction
C) most airborne microbes come from soil, dust, and leaf surfaces
D) in cities dog feces contribute to airborne microbiota

Question 10

Which air samples show a higher proportion of pathogens that may be directly transmitted between people?

A) sample from agricultural region
B) sample from forest
C) sample from coastal region
D) indoor sample

Question 11

In terrestrial microbial communities, 1 gram of surface soil may contain more than ____ microbes.

A) 1 million
B) 10 million
C) 1 billion
D) 10 billion

Question 12

Bacterial species composition in soil communities is highly variable within short periods of time because of changes in _____________. (Select all that apply)

A) soil moisture
B) soil pH
C) ambient temperature
D) oxygen levels

Question 13

Variability in aquatic ecosystems results from all of the following EXCEPT ________________.

A) Light intensity
B) Nutrient availability
C) Water temperature
D) Water depth

Question 14

Marine bacteriophages infecting bacteria in the community actually enhance microbial growth due to _____. (Select all that apply)

A) Reducing interspecific competition
B) Increasing the rate of glucose production by cyanobacteria
C) Viral priming, boosting nutrient availability
D) Enhancing the rate of oxygen production by cyanobacteria

Question 15

___________ contribute more than 40% of Earth's primary productivity.

A) Bacteriophages
B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C) Marine cyanobacteria
D) Aquatic fungi

Question 16

Key features of the hydrologic cycle include _______________. (Select all that apply)

A) Water phase changes from solid to liquid to gas and back
B) Limiting microbial redistribution within the environment
C) Cloud formation, nucleation and precipitation
D) Sequestering water in deep aquifers to prevent sea level from rising

Question 17

Eutrophication involves all of the following EXCEPT ____________.

A) Rapid growth of algae and cyanobacteria
B) Depletion of dissolve oxygen that leads to fish kills
C) Excessive algal growth in surface waters that reduces available nitrogen
D) Excess nutrients triggering an algal bloom

Question 18

All of the following are steps in the formation of a biofilm EXCEPT ____________.

A) colonizing bacteria attach to surfaces coated with organic material using their fimbriae and capsules
B) As the colonizing bacteria secrete proteins and oligosaccharides or release DNA fragments, a sticky extracellular matrix forms
C) A new wave of microorganisms, enriched in bacteriophages, arrives and attaches to the matrix
D) Some microbes in mature biofilms break free and float

Question 19

How does quorum sensing benefit microbial members of a biofilm? (Select all that apply)

A) This chemical intercellular communication helps regulate gene expression as cell density in the biofilm changes
B) Chemicals can be sent throughout the colony to help individual cells adapt to changing nutrient levels
C) Signals are sent to help community members avoid toxins
D) Intercellular messages help the microbial community evade immune attack and defend against competing microorganisms

Question 20

Quorum sensing communication works ________

A) Only between members of the same species in the biofilm
B) Only between bacterial species within the biofilm
C) Between all members of the biofilm
D) Between the members of any other biofilm

Question 21

On which of the following surfaces will biofilms tend NOT to form?

A) Teeth and contact lenses
B) Replacement joints
C) Catheters and artificial heart valves
D) Peptide 1018-treated surfaces

Question 22

What problems do biofilms cause to health care professionals? (Select all that apply)

A) Biofilm microbes are 2x more resistant to antibiotic therapy than non-communal microbes
B) Biofilm members are able to modify their antibiotic sensitivity
C) Biofilm microbes may be responsible for up to 25% of all chronic infections
D) Many drugs that could be effective against the microbes are unable to penetrate the extracellular matrix to reach the pathogens

Question 23

How would Peptide 1018 reduce the number of serious infections caused by biofilm formation on indwelling medical devices? (Select all that apply)

A) It disables (p)ppGpp or guanosine pentaphosphate, a critical chemical signal for biofilm structure
B) Pretreatment of indwelling devices like catheters and stents with Peptide 1018 would dramatically reduce biofilm formation
C) Use of lower concentrations of Peptide 1018 as a pretreatment would eliminate biofilm formation
D) It inactivates (p)ppApp or adenosine pentaphosphate, which is essential for quorum sensing in a biofilm

Question 24

Biogeochemical cycles can be described as __________________.

A) Circulation of chemical elements exclusively through the biotic portions of the biosphere
B) Recycling of essential elements directly between living organisms
C) Use of biochemical reactions in microbes to change unusable forms of elements from the physical environment into chemical forms that can be metabolized by other living organisms
D) Circulation of chemical elements exclusively through the abiotic portions of the biosphere

Question 25

In the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen compounds can undergo ______ chemical reactions.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6

Question 26

Which of the following statements concerning the Nitrogen Cycle is FALSE?

A) It is an atmospheric cycle.
B) In nitrogen fixation, unusable nitrogen gas is oxidized to the usable ammonium ion (NH₄⁺)
C) Nitrogenase is the enzyme responsible for nitrogen fixation.
D) In ammonification, NH₄⁺ is produced during the breakdown of amino acids by soil microbes during the decomposition of organic matter.

Question 27

Stages of the nitrogen cycle in which an abiotic phase converts to a biotic phase occur when ______. (Select all that apply)

A) NO₃^- is absorbed into plants through their roots and used to make amino acids
B) Herbivores consume plant material
C) N₂ gas is fixed into NH₄⁺ in the roots of a soybean plant
D) Denitrifying soil bacteria reduce NO₃^- to N₂

Question 28

___________ is a microbe that participates in nitrogen fixation. (Select all that apply)

A) Anabaena
B) Rhizobium
C) Pseudomonas
D) Nitrobacter

Question 29

___________ is a microbial action that results in nitrogen conversion through reduction. (Select all that apply)

A) Nitrogen fixation
B) Nitrification
C) Denitrification
D) Ammonification

Question 30

In ___________ , soil microbes generate NO₂^- and NO₃^- which are easily taken up by plant roots.

A) Nitrogen fixation
B) Nitrification
C) Denitrification
D) Ammonification

Question 31

The carbon cycle involves ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) The reciprocal processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration
B) Movement of CO₂ through Earth's limestone deposits
C) Absorption of CO₂ from the atmosphere as fossil fuels are burned
D) The process of ammonification

Question 32

Carbon dioxide gas is released into the atmosphere when ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) Microorganisms perform fermentation
B) Microorganisms carry out aerobic respiration
C) Limestone deposits are compacted
D) Microorganisms perform photosynthesis

Question 33

Greenhouse gases ________. (Select all that apply)

A) Include CO₂, N₂O, and CH₄
B) Absorb and reflect heat back to Earth's surface
C) Have increased global mean temperature by 1^o C
D) Have reduced air pollution

Question 34

Ruminants like cows rely on bacteria in their stomachs to break down the cellulose in the plants they eat. This has ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) Released large amounts of methane gas into the atmosphere due to cow flatulence and belching
B) Greatly exacerbated the problem of global warming because CH₄ is almost 20X better at trapping atmospheric heat than CO₂
C) Resulted in lowered global oxygen levels due to the bacterial respiration
D) Resulted in lowered global CO₂ levels due to bacterial respiration

Question 35

Unlike the nitrogen and carbon cycles, the phosphorous cycle is a sedimentary cycle because the principle reservoirs are in __________.

A) rock and soil
B) soil and water
C) rock and sand
D) limestone and water

Question 36

The two pathways in the phosphorous cycle involve _______. (Select all that apply)

A) Slow cycling between abiotic and biotic forms as part of organic molecules
B) Rapid cycling between soluble and insoluble abiotic forms trapped in rock and released by acie-secreting microbes
C) Rapid cycling between abiotic and biotic forms as part of organic molecules
D) Slow cycling between soluble and insoluble abiotic forms trapped in rock and released by acid-secreting microbes

Question 37

Phosphorous cycles rapidly through the food web as _______. (Select all that apply)

A) Microbes like Bacillus, Pseudomonas, and Rhizobium convert phosphorous into soluble compounds
B) Plants take up the soluble compounds and pass them on to herbivores
C) Decomposition of dead organisms return phosphorous to the soil and water
D) Acid secretion by mycorrhizae elevates soil pH, improving solubility of phosphorous compounds

Question 38

The phosphorous cycle is essential for providing usable phosphorous to organisms who need it to make ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) ATP
B) Carbohydrates
C) Nucleic acids
D) Phospholipids

Question 39

The red waters of the Tinto River have a pH of 1.5-3.1 ____________. (Select all that apply)

A) As a result of the sulfur- and iron-metabolizing bacterial community composed of Leptospirullum, Acidithiobacillus, Ferroplasma, and Thermoplasma
B) And sulfide-rich sediments similar to equatorial subsurface areas on Mars
C) Which result in the geochemical conditions that produce Jarosite, a rare mineral also discovered on Mars
D) Just like the microbe-rich rivers on Mars

Question 40

The ________ biogeochemical cycle relies on redox reactions to interconvert compounds. (Select all that apply)

A) Hydrologic
B) Nitrogen
C) Phosphorous
D) Sulfur

Question 41

Bioremediation __________. (Select all that apply)

A) Intentionally introduces specific microorganisms to degrade and/or consumer pollutants
B) Uses naturally-occurring microorganisms to degrade and/or consume pollutants
C) Introduces man-made chemicals into a habitat to inhibit the growth of microorganisms
D) Permits habitat decontamination

Question 42

Heavy metals from mining pollution and aromatic hydrocarbons from petroleum product spills can be bioremediated using ________.

A) Dechloromonas aromatic
B) Geobacter spp.
C) Nitrobacter hamburgensis
D) Pseudomonas putida

Question 43

Excess ammonium, nitrates, and nitrites from fertilizer can be removed from the soil using ________.

A) Dechloromonas aromatic
B) Geobacter spp.
C) Nitrobacter hamburgensis
D) Pseudomonas putida

Question 44

What A habitat accidentally contaminated by the release of radioactive waste can be bioremediated by ________.

A) Dechloromonas aromatic
B) Deinococcus radiodurans
C) Phanerochaete chrysosporium
D) Pleurotus ostreatus

Question 45

The fungus _____ can bioremediate habitats contaminated with dioxins, cyanides, or carbon tetrachloride.

A) Dechloromonas aromatic
B) Deinococcus radiodurans
C) Phanerochaete chrysosporium
D) Pleurotus ostreatus

Question 46

Bioremediation of the Cuyahoga River ________. (Select all that apply)

A) Was required to overcome the damage resulting from agricultural run-off and industrial dumping
B) Was enhanced by the passage of the Ohio Clean Water Act (OCWA) in 1992 which made it illegal to dump pollutants into the river
C) Was facilitated by the activity of bacterial species such as Bacillus, Burkholderia and Pseudomonas
D) Has seen the gradual return of many fish species as water quality improved

Question 47

Biostimulation ___________. (Select all that apply)

A) Involves modification of environmental conditions so naturally-occurring microorganisms increase their metabolic reactions to speed pollutant degradation
B) Involves changing habitat pH, temperature, and nutrient availability
C) Requires the introduction of GMOs into the contaminated habitat
D) Uses microorganisms to generate commercially valuable proteins

Question 48

___________ is an example of successful bioremediation of a contaminated habitat. (Select all that apply)

A) The Cuyahoga River in Cleveland, Ohio
B) The Gulf of Mexico following the Deepwater Horizon oil spill in 2010
C) The Tinto River in Spain
D) Grand Lake St. Mary's

Question 49

Bioaugmentation displays all of the following characteristics EXCEPT _________.

A) The addition of specifically selected microbes chosen because they metabolize a specific pollutant
B) Using microbes that are genetically modified
C) Selectively speeding up the degradation of industrial versus naturally-occurring pollutants
D) Using naturally-occurring microorganisms

Question 50

All of the following are problems associated with treating sewage and wastewater EXCEPT _________.

A) Microbes must be added to the waste in order to process it
B) The high amounts of nitrogen and phosphorous promote habitat enrichment, leading to algal blooms
C) The BOD of microbes that digest the waste is so high that normal oxygen levels are inadequate to support aquatic life
D) The removal of high levels of nitrogen and phosphorous from the organic matter

Question 51

The cleanest surface water is disinfected with chlorine or UV light as the excess nitrogen and phosphorous are removed in the _________ phase of sewage remediation.

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Sterilization

Question 52

Raw sewage is pumped into a holding tank, the refuse and oils skimmed from the surface, and particulate matters settle to the bottom of the tank in the _________ phase of sewage remediation.

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Sterilization

Question 53

Wastewater is transferred to an aeration chamber so oxidation by microbes can remove 75% of the BOD in the _________ phase of sewage remediation.

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Sterilization

Question 54

What happens to the sludge produced during the first two phases of sewage processing? (Select all that apply)

A) It is used as agricultural fertilizer since it contains high levels of NPK and organic material
B) It is converted into biofuels because of its high CO₂ levels
C) It can be converted into biogases such as methane
D) It can be heat-treated and used to make construction materials

Question 55

Which of the following statements about municipal water supply treatment for safe human consumption is FALSE?

A) Surface water picks up many pathogenic and nonpathogenic microbes from rain water contamination
B) Animal feces are a source of many microbes contaminating reservoirs
C) Indicator microbes are usually fecal coliforms like E. coli that live in the colons of animals and suggest that more dangerous microbial contaminants could be present
D) The presence of indicator organisms confirms the presence of pathogenic contaminants

Question 56

All of the following are major steps in treating freshwater to make it potable EXCEPT ________.

A) Reservoirs are used as large holding areas that allow particulates to settle to the bottom
B) Water is treated with magnesium sulfate to reduce the growth of photosynthetic microbes
C) Water is eventually pumped into special tanks that filter it with rocks or sand to remove the majority of microorganisms
D) The final step pumps water into holding tanks for disinfecting chlorination or light treatments

Question 57

Which of the following characteristics describe a fecal coliform? (Select all that apply)

A) Lactose-fermenter
B) Gram positive
C) Gas-generators
D) Base-secretors

Question 58

Microorganisms are used to produce many valuable products commonly used in modern society such as _______. (Select all that apply)

A) Food preservatives like acetic acid
B) Toxins for pesticide use in agriculture
C) Enzymes to create faded blue jean finishes
D) Vitamin supplements

Question 59

_______ is used to make antibiotics for treating bacterial infections.

A) Streptomyces
B) Cunninghamella
C) Rhizopus
D) GMO E. coli

Question 60

_______ is used to make steroids used in producing birth control products. (Select all that apply)

A) Streptomyces
B) Cunninghamella
C) Rhizopus
D) GMO E. coli

Question 61

_______ is used to make Humalog, a recombinant human insulin used to control blood glucose levels.

A) Streptomyces
B) Cunninghamella
C) Rhizopus
D) GMO E. coli

Question 62

Industrial fermentation utilizes a bioreactor to _______ . (Select all that apply)

A) maximize microbial growth and product generation
B) control variables such as temperature, pH, oxygen concentration, and nutrient levels
C) cultivate a starter culture community of microbes
D) vent gases generated during fermentation

Question 63

______ is used to make a toxin that stops larval development, acting as a pesticide.

A) Clostridium spp.
B) Aspergillus
C) Bacillus (Bti)
D) Chlamydomonas

Question 64

______ is used to make the solvent acetone.

A) Clostridium spp.
B) Bradyrhizobium
C) Bacillus (Bti)
D) Chlamydomonas

Question 65

______ is used to make fertilizers by promoting nitrogen fixation.

A) Clostridium spp.
B) Bradyrhizobium
C) Bacillus (Bti)
D) Chlamydomonas

Question 66

Which of the following food products is mismatched with the microbe responsible for giving it a distinctive flavor?

A) Sauerkraut, poi, kimchi, and kombucha get their tangy flavor from Lactobacillus brevis
B) Summer sausages and salamis get their savory flavor from Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C) Buttermilk, kefir, and sour cream are made using Lactococcus lactis
D) Yogurt production involves Lactobacillus bulgaricus

Question 67

Yogurt production utilizes microbial fermentation of milk to lower the pH and promote the tangy flavor and creamy texture. Put the steps for this process in the correct order.
1) Excess fat is skimmed off raw milk and protein content is raised with milk products,
2) Milk is cooled to 50^o C and inoculated with L. bulgaricus and L. thermophiles
3) Fermentation generates formic and lactic acids that drop pH to 4.3 and coagulates milk proteins
4) Contents are pasteurized and homogenized
5) Additional flavorings may be added before dispensing yogurt into containers and sealing them

A) 4, 2, 3, 1. 5
B) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
C) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 68

Which of the following terms and descriptions are mismatched?

A) curds/coagulated milk proteins such as casein
B) whey/milk fluid containing proteins and other nutrients
C) unripened cheese/Brie
D) secondary cultured cheeses/Swiss

Question 69

Why is the maximum alcohol content of wine typically around 12%?

A) Because at this point, the alcohol poisons the yeast and the fermentation process that produces the alcohol stops
B) Because the yeast runs out of a carbohydrate source to ferment
C) Because the accumulation of alcohol lowers the temperature enough that fermentation cannot proceed
D) Because the pH is raised during fermentation which denatures the enzymes needed to continue the process

Question 70

Which of the following statements describes the term "malting" in the process of making beer?

A) The grain is crushed to expose more starch as substrate to the digestive enzymes
B) The crushed grain is treated with hot water to increase enzyme activity
C) The liquid is separated from the grain mash and mixed with hops to add flavor
D) The grain is germinated to release alpha-amylase which digests starch to glucose

Question 71

Why did the attempt to make bacon beer in the case study fail?

A) Anaerobic conditions were not produced so fermentation never occurred.
B) The strain of yeast used did not perform fermentation in the homemade anaerobic chamber.
C) Fermentation requires a carbohydrate source such as glucose, which is not found in bacon.
D) In order for yeast to ferment the lipids in the bacon, the temperature should have been significantly elevated.

Question 72

Rapid onset of gastroenteritis symptoms following food ingestion typically suggests _________. (Select all that apply)

A) Infection, as it would require a large population of contaminating microbes which would take time to produce
B) Intoxication, as toxins secreted into the food by contaminating microbes are immediately available to bind host GI receptors and initiate symptoms
C) Contamination of the food with a pathogen such as Staphylococcus aureus, a notorious toxin-secretor
D) The importance of meticulous hygiene during food preparation as intoxication can still occur if toxin-secreting pathogens are killed by cooking

Question 73

The seven principles of the HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point) system do not include ___________.

A) Identification points of where food safety could be compromised
B) The establishment of clear critical limits for cooking temperature and time, food color, texture, and general appearance
C) Inspection of food items prior to entrance into manufacturing operations
D) Establishment of corrective actions in advance so products inadvertently made under unsafe conditions do not enter the market

Question 74

The HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point) system originated as a collaboration between ___________.

A) NASA and US Army Laboratories and Pillsbury to develop a protocol to provide safe food on manned space missions
B) the USDA, FDA, and Pillsbury to develop a protocol to provide safe food on manned space missions
C) the USDA, FDA, and US Army Laboratories to develop a protocol to provide safe food for deployed military personnel
D) the USDA, FDA, and Pillsbury to develop a protocol to provide safe processed foods to the US public

Question 75

Spices and nuts are often preserved by adding ___________.

A) Citric and propionic acids
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Alkylating agents
D) Nitrates

Question 76

Processed meats like bacon are often preserved by adding ___________.

A) Citric and propionic acids
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Alkylating agents
D) Nitrates

Question 77

Juices, soft drinks, cereals, and pastries are often preserved by adding ___________.

A) Citric and propionic acids
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Alkylating agents
D) Nitrates

Question 78

________ is often used to decontaminate fruit juice before it undergoes fermentation to make wine.

A) Citric and propionic acids
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Alkylating agents
D) Nitrates

Question 79

Which of the following physical methods of microbial control is gaining popularity and public acceptance because of its effectiveness?

A) Chemical desiccation and dehydration
B) Ionizing radiation to damage microbial DNA
C) High pressure treatments of 90,000 psi
D) Freeze-drying

Question 80

Which of the following statements about pasteurization is FALSE?

A) It is a process of heating liquid foods to kill vegetative microbes that lead to spoilage.
B) It increases the length of time that products are safe to consume
C) It uses an inverse ratio so the higher the pasteurization temperature, the shorter the time needed for heating
D) It destroys all of the pathogens in the treated food product