Deck 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli

Question 1

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?

A) hemorrhaging
B) fever
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.
E) usually a bladder infection.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters
B) noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella
C) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens
D) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella
E) noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?

A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains.
B) Up to 40% of the population are carriers.
C) Humans are the only natural carriers.
D) Transmission is via respiratory droplets.
E) It often causes meningitis.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?

A) It causes disease in humans only.
B) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules.
C) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA.
D) The gonococci induce lasting immunity.
E) Infected women are often asymptomatic.

Question 5

Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE?

A) It is oxidase positive.
B) It is nonmotile.
C) Humans are typically infected via animal bites.
D) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar.
E) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.

Question 6

Among the areas of the female genital tract,which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A) the vagina
B) the cervix
C) the uterus
D) the Fallopian tubes
E) the pelvic organs

Question 7

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by

A) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
B) the ability to ferment lactose.
C) motility.
D) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
E) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.

Question 8

Salmonella and Shigella,both causes of diarrhea,can be distinguished by which of the following tests?

A) lactose fermentation
B) oxidase test
C) motility
D) urease test
E) pigment production

Question 9

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?

A) the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes
B) a catalase positive reaction
C) the presence of lipid A
D) the lack of lipooligosaccharide
E) the presence of white blood cells in the CSF

Question 10

What virulence factor(s)do all Gram-negative bacteria share?

A) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies
B) fimbriae
C) lipid A
D) a glycocalyx
E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx

Question 11

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of

A) its invasion into the central nervous system.
B) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals.
C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact.
D) the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC.
E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.

Question 12

Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species?

A) hemolysin
B) fimbriae
C) a capsule
D) exotoxins
E) both a capsule and fimbriae

Question 13

A virulence factor common to many members of the Enterobacteriaceae which permits them to deliver harmful proteins directly to cells is

A) fimbriae.
B) a glycocalyx.
C) type III secretion system.
D) pili.
E) porins.

Question 14

The small,oxidase positive nonmotile bacterium ________ is part of the normal microbiota of dogs,but bites can lead to infection in humans.

A) Pasteurella
B) Hafnia
C) Salmonella
D) Enterobacter
E) Yersina

Question 15

What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague?

A) Yersinia pestis
B) Yersinia enterocolitica
C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D) Salmonella enterica
E) Salmonella flexneri

Question 16

A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli.Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile coliforms with a thick capsule.Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Enterobacter
C) Hafnia
D) Klebsiella
E) Serratia

Question 17

What biochemical test is used to distinguish between the Enterobacteriaceae and the Pasteurellaceae?

A) lactose fermentation
B) oxidase test
C) motility
D) pigment production
E) Gram stain

Question 18

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is

A) usually asymptomatic.
B) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease.
C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge.
D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.
E) usually a bladder infection.

Question 19

Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth?

A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Yersinia
D) Haemophilus
E) Bordetella

Question 20

Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Serratia marcescens
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Enterobacter

Question 21

How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides?

A) Prevotella are sensitive to bile.
B) Prevotella are anaerobic.
C) Prevotella are pleomorphic bacilli.
D) Prevotella are found in the intestinal, respiratory, and urinary tracts.
E) Prevotella possess antiphagocytic capsules.

Question 22

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?

A) typhoid fever
B) salmonellosis
C) cat scratch disease
D) gonorrhea
E) chancroid

Question 23

What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections?

A) erythromycin
B) tetracycline
C) metronidazole
D) cephalosporin
E) bacitracin

Question 24

Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can progress to

A) bubonic plague.
B) meningococcal meningitis.
C) trench fever.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
E) Q fever.

Question 25

A cystic fibrosis patient develops a severe respiratory infection that resists treatment with standard antibiotics.A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile Gram-negative bacilli.The patient is probably infected with

A) Bordetella pertussis.
B) Burkholderia cepacia.
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E) Serratia marcescens.

Question 26

What is the significance of the infective body formed by Coxiella bacteria,intracellular parasites that cause a zoonosis in humans?

A) It uses actin filaments to move from cell to cell.
B) It is a resistant stage similar to an endospore.
C) It can grow in extracellular fluid for short periods of time.
D) It is only produced when Coxiella is in a tick.
E) It is a fragile stage found only inside cells.

Question 27

What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis?

A) a bubo
B) a chancroid
C) a soft chancre
D) petechiae
E) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall

Question 28

Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea?

A) pertussis toxin
B) adenylate cyclase toxin
C) tracheal cytotoxin
D) both adenylate cyclase toxin and tracheal cytotoxin
E) both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin

Question 29

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
B) Serratia marcescens.
C) Proteus mirabilis.
D) Bacteroides fragilis.
E) Salmonella typhi.

Question 30

A lesion called ________ is a characteristic of an infection with Haemophilus ducreyi.

A) a bubo
B) a chancroid or soft chancre
C) an eschar
D) ophthalmia neonatorum
E) petechiae

Question 31

The growth pattern in Figure is characteristic of which organism?

A) Klebsiella
B) Proteus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Salmonella
E) Shigella

Question 32

How is pneumonic plague transmitted?

A) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis
B) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis
C) fomite contact
D) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis
E) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis

Question 33

Important members of the intestinal microbiota are the strictly anaerobic

A) Enterobacter.
B) Bacteroides.
C) Pseudomonas.
D) Bordetella.
E) Legionella.

Question 34

Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by

A) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media.
B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope.
C) serological diagnostic procedures.
D) the clinical symptoms in infected patients.
E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.

Question 35

Urinary tract infections with ________ are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones.

A) Escherichia coli
B) Bacteroides species
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Salmonella species

Question 36

Resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its

A) production of exoenzyme S.
B) use of the Entner-Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose.
C) ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources.
D) ability to metabolize many drugs.
E) lack of special requirements for growth.

Question 37

What is the causative pathogen of Q fever?

A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Prevotella
C) Coxiella burnetii
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Acinetobacter

Question 38

Infection with ________ usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months old.

A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Francisella tularensis
C) Coxiella burnetii
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Hafnia species

Question 39

Cat scratch disease is caused by

A) Bartonella bacilliformis.
B) Bartonella henselae.
C) Bartonella quintana.
D) Bartonella peliosis.
E) Bartonella angiomatosis.

Question 40

Bordetella pertussis causes disease by

A) the development of pneumonia.
B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.
C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining.
D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.
E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

Question 41

Serratia marcescens can be identified by its distinctive blue-green pigment pyocyanin.

Question 42

Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact.

Question 43

Because of the existence of (acute/asymptomatic/passive)carriers,the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely.

Question 44

Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella enterica subtype Typhi (formerly S.typhi).

Question 45

Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic.

Question 46

Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors.

Question 47

Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them.

Question 48

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a true pathogen with a long list of virulence factors.

Question 49

Inhaling aerosols of dried bodily fluids from infected animals may result in

A) tularemia.
B) salmonellosis.
C) Q fever.
D) hemolytic uremic syndrome.
E) both tularemia and Q fever.

Question 50

Coliforms are distinguished from noncoliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose).

Question 51

Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC).

Question 52

Neisseria is distinguished from many other Gram-negative pathogens by being (catalase/oxidase/dismutase)positive.

Question 53

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice?

A) bubonic plague
B) tularemia
C) Pontiac fever
D) trench fever
E) brucellosis

Question 54

Aerobic bacteria in the genus ________ are important environmental decomposers,able to digest herbicides like Agent Orange and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).

A) Burkholderia
B) Coxiella
C) Pseudomonas
D) Prevotella
E) Hafnia

Question 55

Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Question 56

Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa?

A) acute bacterial meningitis
B) meningococcal meningitis
C) Q fever
D) pertussis
E) Legionnaires' disease

Question 57

MacConkey agar is selective for Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 58

Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis.

Question 59

Humans infected with Brucella species develop ________ characterized by fever,chills,sweating,muscle aches,and headache.

A) rabbit fever
B) undulant fever
C) trench fever
D) Q fever
E) cat scratch fever

Question 60

After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis,the patient has cold-like (catarrhal)symptoms for a week or two followed by a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued.

Question 61

How does Salmonella grow in host cells? How does it differ from Shigella?

Question 62

The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella)is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from freshwater sources.

Question 63

Compare and contrast meningococcal meningitis and meningitis caused by Haemophilus,including etiologic agents,pathology,and epidemiology.

Question 64

An effective vaccine is available to prevent (gonorrhea/salmonellosis/typhoid).

Question 65

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae produce toxins known as (enterotoxins/hemolysins/siderophores)to capture iron for their use.

Question 66

Among the variety of virulence factors possessed by pathogenic enteric bacteria,which ones allow them to evade the immune surveillance of its host?

Question 67

Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis)toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.

Question 68

Why is treatment with antimicrobial drugs not encouraged in patients with diarrhea caused by enteric bacteria?

Question 69

Compare and contrast Yersinia pestis and Francisella tularensis with respect to clinical manifestations,mechanisms of transmission,reservoirs,and pathogenesis.

Question 70

Unlike other Gram-negative opportunistic bacilli,Bacteroides are (aerotolerant/facultative/strict)anaerobes.

Question 71

When a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).

Question 72

People can reduce the chances of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits,muskrats,and (fleas/lice/ticks).

Question 73

Of the three diseases caused by Yersinia pestis,only (bubonic/black/pneumonic)plague is communicable between humans.

Question 74

The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia)is a noncoliform,nonmotile,oxidase-negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide.

Question 75

Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).

Question 76

Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/macrophages/epithelium)and the production of bloody sputum.

Question 77

The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia)can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways,including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals.