Deck 2: The Founding and the Constitution

Question 1

In Federalist no. 55, James Madison argues, "...had every Athenian citizen been a Socrates, every Athenian assembly would have been a mob." This statement illustrates

A) Madison's prejudice against Greeks.
B) Madison's fear and distrust of direct democracy.
C) Madison's belief that representative government encouraged barbaric behavior.
D) Madison's belief that violence is a legitimate form of protest.
E) Madison's disgust with the Magna Carta.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Democracy first emerged in the

A) Greek city-state of Athens.
B) early years of the Roman Emperor.
C) right after the emergence of the Bible.
D) colonists' attempt to bring freedom to the New World.
E) United States

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Most of the New England colonies based their first governments on the idea of a(n)

A) monarchy.
B) aristocracy.
C) confederation.
D) republic.
E) compact.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

The social contract theory underlying our founding documents is

A) the people must always agree to create a government.
B) the government cannot act until the people have voted.
C) the government is created from popular sovereignty to act in the people's interest.
D) the government is disbanded whenever the people disagree.
E) the people never have the right to revolt regardless of what government does.

Question 5

One of the points on which Thomas Hobbes and John Locke agreed was

A) that an effective democracy needed an absolute sovereign.
B) that some individuals possessed a divine right to rule.
C) that people had the right to rid themselves of bad government.
D) that every society needed a strong representative assembly.
E) that human nature is basically evil.

Question 6

Which of the following are not social contract theorists?

A) Thomas Hobbes
B) John Locke
C) Charles de Montesquieu
D) All of them are social contract theorists.
E) None of them are social contact theorists.

Question 7

Social contract theorist Thomas Hobbes is the author of which preeminent text:

A) a. Leviathan
B) Two Treatises on Government
C) Second Treatise
D) On Liberty
E) Mayflower Compact

Question 8

America's social contract is codified in the

A) Declaration of Independence
B) National Archives
C) Constitution
D) Magna Carta
E) Bible

Question 9

The Boston Tea Party

A) was supported by the King of England.
B) had no effect.
C) was an act of civil disobedience.
D) was carried out by British soldiers.
E) led to the French and Indian War.

Question 10

How many delegates attended the First Continental Congress?

A) twenty-two
B) thirty-five
C) forty
D) fifty-five
E) sixty-two

Question 11

The original purpose of the First Continental Congress was to

A) open Boston harbors for the purpose of increasing British trade.
B) encourage the British to leave the Americas.
C) persuade the British to provide more personal freedom to the colonists.
D) persuade the colonists of their need for organized resistance.
E) establish more cordial relations with the British.

Question 12

The Second Continental Congress

A) was firm in their resolve to break with England.
B) took on the role of coordinating the war effort.
C) was poorly attended.
D) ratified the Articles of Confederation.
E) issued the Declaration of American Rights.

Question 13

In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argued for

A) the death of King George III.
B) a complete separation from England.
C) the abolition of slavery.
D) a strong, national American government.
E) a resolution to oppose British acts.

Question 14

The Declaration of Independence severed the relationship between the colonies and the British government, justified the revolution, and provided a philosophical basis for limited government based on popular consent. Therefore, it

A) serves as a national constitution.
B) repudiated the idea of rule by divine right.
C) stands as a testament to the natural superiority of property owners.
D) was a formal declaration of war by the Second Continental Congress.
E) transferred powers on selected issues to a central government.

Question 15

The Articles of Confederation

A) were never ratified.
B) reflected the distrust most Americans felt towards a strong central government.
C) allowed all of the states to prosper financially.
D) allowed the central government to preserve public peace and order.
E) provided for the centralization of power in the federal government.

Question 16

The Articles of Confederation made it clear that

A) a confederation of states was not the type of political system America wanted.
B) its authors wished to remain loyal to the British Crown.
C) outbreaks, such as Shays's Rebellion, were perfectly understandable as they were rooted in the spirit of revolution inspired by the document.
D) ultimate political authority rested with the people.
E) the central government reigned supreme.

Question 17

The Shay's Rebellion of 1786 consisted of farmers who were seeking

A) freedom of speech.
B) the right to assemble.
C) freedom of the press.
D) government office
E) e. economic independence.

Question 18

The Virginia Plan

A) called for three branches of government.
B) called for a federal system of government.
C) called for a unicameral legislature.
D) called for equal representation for all states.
E) called for the protection of the interests of small states.

Question 19

The delegates attending the constitutional convention in 1787 would best be described as

A) political philosophers.
B) representing a good cross section of contemporary American society.
C) farmers and laborers.
D) revolutionaries.
E) skilled politicians.

Question 20

According to the text, there were two philosophical camps at the Convention:

A) the urbanites and the suburbanites.
B) the Federalists and the Antifederalists.
C) the loyalists and the revolutionaries.
D) the expansionists and isolationists
E) the democrats and the republicans.

Question 21

The "Great Compromise" was also called the

A) Three-Fifths Compromise.
B) Massachusetts Compromise.
C) Virginia Compromise.
D) Connecticut Compromise.
E) Washington Compromise.

Question 22

The purpose of checks and balances is to ensure that

A) the government remains solvent.
B) national laws always supercede conflicting state laws.
C) no branch of government becomes too powerful.
D) large states never dominate small states.
E) the executive branch dominates over the other branches.

Question 23

The New Jersey Plan

A) was designed to refine and strengthen the Articles of Confederation.
B) suggested a Council of Revision.
C) was very popular.
D) suggested a bicameral legislature.
E) would allow states to tax imports.

Question 24

Which institution of our modern government can be traced back to the New Jersey Plan?

A) The unitary executive.
B) The Supreme Court.
C) The bicameral legislature.
D) The equal state membership in the Senate.
E) The equal state membership in the House.

Question 25

Which of the following illustrates the framers' unwillingness to deal with the issue of slavery?

A) Slaves count as three-fifths for census-taking purposes.
B) Runaway slaves must be returned to the slave states.
C) New states will vote whether to allow slavery.
D) The slave trade would not end until 1808.
E) The issue of slavery was not dealt with in the new Constitution.

Question 26

The legislative branch of the United States government is a (n)

A) unicameral legislature.
B) bicameral legislature.
C) confederation.
D) aristocracy.
E) oligarchy.

Question 27

Which of the following statements best summarizes the effect of the Connecticut Compromise?

A) Five slaves would equal three free people for purposes of representation.
B) The Senate became the dominant house in Congress.
C) Money bills could only be introduced by the executive.
D) Provided life long tenure to the Supreme Court justices.
E) It upheld the large-state position for the House of Representatives.

Question 28

The three-fifths compromise

A) gave slave states the 50 percent of the seats in the House of Representatives they were hoping for.
B) dismantled the institution of slavery in the South.
C) assured the ratification of the new constitution.
D) assured that the new constitution would not be ratified.
E) provided a final resolution for the issue of slavery.

Question 29

What did the Declaration of Independence say about the institution of slavery?

A) Nothing.
B) All slaves were to be freed immediately.
C) George III was responsible for the slave trade.
D) The writers of the document were freeing their slaves.
E) All slaves would have input into the government.

Question 30

The electoral college system assures that

A) only the wealthiest Americans have a chance to be elected president.
B) only college graduates have an opportunity to be elected president.
C) more than one person can serve as president.
D) a presidential candidate would need support from large and small states around the country.
E) voters would directly elect the president.

Question 31

Before they revised their decision and chose four-year terms for the president, with reelection possible, the Constitutional Convention narrowly voted for

A) two-year terms.
B) a single seven-year term.
C) a limit of three six-year terms.
D) a limit of four three-year terms.
E) a limit of three four-year terms.

Question 32

Which article set forth the powers of the legislative branch?

A) Article I.
B) Article II.
C) Article III.
D) Article IV.
E) Article V.

Question 33

Vertical powers refer to the relationship between the centralized national government and the state governments. This arrangement is commonly referred to as

A) an associational system.
B) a federal system.
C) a unitary system.
D) national supremacy.
E) police powers.

Question 34

The powers belonging to the state governments are called

A) reserved powers.
B) delegated powers.
C) regional powers.
D) national powers.
E) federal powers.

Question 35

Powers not expressly granted or enumerated in the Constitution and limited in nature are referred to as

A) reserved powers.
B) war powers.
C) proper powers.
D) implied powers.
E) police powers.

Question 36

Reducing the size and authority of the federal government by returning programs to the states is referred to as

A) devolution.
B) centralization.
C) mandating orders.
D) political reversals.
E) delegated powers.

Question 37

Police powers

A) are reserved to the states.
B) do not relate to morality.
C) can only be used against lawbreakers.
D) are provided by the Fifth Amendment.
E) are reserved to the federal government.

Question 38

Empowering police forces and other government officials to check U.S. citizenship credentials is an example of

A) delegated powers.
B) enumerated powers.
C) police powers.
D) reserved powers.
E) legislative powers.

Question 39

Which of the three major branches does not have an "elastic clause" expanding its power within the Article creating that power?

A) The judiciary.
B) The executive.
C) the Senate
D) the House
E) They all have "elastic clauses."

Question 40

The __________ gave itself the power to interpret and update the Constitution using judicial review.

A) Constitutional founders
B) American people
C) Senate
D) House of Representative
E) Supreme Court

Question 41

Article I of the Constitution gives Congress which of the following powers?

A) the power to declare martial law
B) the power to interpret the Constitution
C) the power to declare war
D) the power to regulate intrastate commerce
E) the power of the executive.

Question 42

The text notes that, for the framers, Article I of the Constitution was the most important because they intended that the new Congress have more legislative authority than the one which existed under the Articles of Confederation. This is evidenced by

A) the necessary and proper clause.
B) the delegated powers of Congress.
C) the fact that there are two houses.
D) the power of Congress to collect taxes.
E) the power to declare war.

Question 43

The text states that the first line in Article II, which reads, "The executive Power shall be vested in a president of the United States of America,"

A) broadens the power of the executive.
B) limits the power of the executive.
C) permits the president to declare war.
D) makes the president a superlegislator.
E) provides more room for Congress to make decisions.

Question 44

Federal judges

A) are elected.
B) only serve for six years.
C) are appointed by Congress.
D) serve for life as long as they maintain good behavior.
E) cannot be impeached.

Question 45

The Federalist Papers were written under the pen name of

A) Delgado.
B) Rufus.
C) Cypress.
D) Publius.
E) Hamilton

Question 46

Article III gives Congress

A) nothing.
B) the power to abolish the Supreme Court.
C) the power to establish inferior federal courts.
D) the power of judicial review.
E) the power to impeach the president.

Question 47

What do many scholars consider to be the most important work of political theory in U.S. history?

A) Letters of Brutus
B) Genuine Information
C) Observations on the New Constitution
D) the Federalist Papers
E) the Declaration of Independence

Question 48

Article IV contains which of the following provisions?

A) Full Faith and Credit
B) Powers Denied to the States
C) Powers and Duties of the President
D) Judicial Power, Courts, Judges
E) Amending the Constitution

Question 49

The Federalist Papers were comprised of how many essays?

A) 19
B) 116
C) 54
D) 85
E) 116

Question 50

Which of the following statements best describes the philosophy of the Federalists?

A) They believed in a direct democracy.
B) They were opposed to the electoral college.
C) They were opposed to national supremacy.
D) They strongly advocated states' rights.
E) They believed in a strong central government.

Question 51

Which of the following statements best describes the philosophy of the Antifederalists?

A) They were opposed to national supremacy.
B) They supported strong state governments.
C) They believed in direct democracy.
D) They were opposed to the electoral college.
E) They held a nationalist ideology.

Question 52

In Federalist no. 10, Madison's cure for the "mischief of factions" was

A) to deny aggressive individuals the right to vote.
B) to confiscate private property.
C) to increase the size of the political unit.
D) to limit state powers.
E) to allow states to resolve the issue.

Question 53

According to Federalist no. 10, what is the source of factions?

A) the difference in philosophical attitudes between elites and masses
B) the difference in property classifications
C) political parties
D) the lack of liberty
E) unequal distribution of power between the national and state governments

Question 54

The first ten amendments to the Constitution are referred to as

A) the Bill of Rights.
B) Special Topics.
C) Relevant Opinions.
D) constitutional dogmas.
E) the Federalists Papers.

Question 55

Identify the only man to sign all three of this nation's founding documents.

A) James Tyler
B) Roger Sherman
C) Thomas Rhodes
D) Alfred Gould
E) George Washington

Question 56

The Ninth and Tenth Amendments could best be described as

A) limitations on the power of the national government.
B) rights guaranteed to the national government.
C) rights guaranteed to the states and property owners, respectively.
D) rights guaranteed to property owners and the states, respectively.
E) rights guaranteed to the central government and states, respectively.

Question 57

Proposing an amendment to the Constitution requires a

A) simple majority of Congress.
B) plurality of Congress.
C) supermajority of Congress.
D) decree by the president.
E) decree by the Supreme Court.

Question 58

The Seventeenth Amendment, which relates to the direct election of senators, was ratified in

A) 1941.
B) 1913.
C) 1847.
D) 1801.
E) 1776.

Question 59

In 1911, what did thirty-one states call for a convention to consider?

A) the direct election of the Senate
B) the removal of the vice president
C) a new Supreme Court justice
D) a congressional investigation to investigate the president
E) a the impeachment of a Supreme Court justice

Question 60

What was the name of the chief justice who ruled in the case of Marbury v. Madison?

A) John Marshall
B) John White
C) Adam Smith
D) Alfred Mayer
E) William Rehnquist

Question 61

How many times has the Constitution been amended?

A) twenty-seven times
B) thirty-three times
C) forty-two times
D) fifty-one times
E) sixty-four times

Question 62

The Supreme Court's decision in the case of Marbury v. Madison (1803) was important because it

A) gave the Court the power of judicial review.
B) was so long.
C) resolved the question of original intent.
D) divided the Court for the first time.
E) allowed the president to be impeached.

Question 63

Which of the following is the typical route for a constitutional amendment?

A) proposal by two-thirds of both houses of Congress, and ratification by three-fourths of the state legislatures
B) proposal by two-thirds of both houses of Congress, and ratification by three-fourths of the state legislatures in special convention
C) proposal by Congress in a national convention called at the request of two-thirds of the states, and ratification by three-fourths of the state legislatures
D) proposal by Congress in a national convention called at the request of two-thirds of the states, and ratification by three-fourths of the state legislatures in special convention
E) proposal by Congress that is then put forward to the public through a referendum

Question 64

What is guaranteed by the Second Amendment?

A) the right to assemble peaceably
B) absolute freedom of religion
C) the right to a fair and speedy trial
D) the right to keep and bear arms
E) the right to sue a state in federal court

Question 65

Which of the following constitutional amendments was nullified by another?

A) the Tenth Amendment
B) the Eighteenth Amendment
C) the Twenty-first Amendment
D) the Seventeenth Amendment
E) the Twenty-first Amendment

Question 66

The most remarkable feature of the Constitution is

A) its reluctance to change.
B) its noncontroversial nature.
C) its low cost of implementation.
D) how it has adapted to the times.
E) that is has served us for 400 years.

Question 67

What feature of our government today cannot be found in the Constitution?

A) A judicial review power.
B) A bicameral legislature.
C) A unitary executive.
D) The power of Congress to create a lower federal judiciary.
E) An amendment process.

Question 68

The ______Amendment is the only amendment that was ratified in special state convention.

A) Tenth
B) Nineteenth
C) Twentieth
D) Twenty-first.
E) Twenty-second

Question 69

It is clear that the framers of the American Constitution were more influenced by Roman republicanism than Athenian democracy.

Question 70

Most of the New England colonies based their first governments on the idea of personal individualism.

Question 71

Social contract theory provides the philosophical foundation for the obligations individuals and states have toward each other. If the state violates the contract, the citizen is still morally obligated to obey its laws.

Question 72

In the book Second Treatise of Government, Locke argues for a government based upon popular sovereignty, with limited powers.

Question 73

The theories of John Locke stressed the concept of limited government.

Question 74

A confederation is a league of sovereign states.

Question 75

The Albany Plan was constructed by Benjamin Franklin.

Question 76

The Declaration of Independence was drafted at the First Continental Congress by John Jay and Patrick Henry.

Question 77

In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argues for a complete separation from England.

Question 78

On July 12, 1777, after six drafts, the Articles of Confederation were presented to the Continental Congress.

Question 79

Under the Articles, the states had very little authority.

Question 80

Daniel Shays was a farmer in western Pennsylvania.