Deck 2: Medication Aide Certification Exam

Question 1

Which are the most serious adverse effects associated with Lithium?

A)Hepatitis
B)Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
C)Sinus node dysfunction
D)None of the above

Answer 1

None of the above

Question 2

Which of the following are vasodilators?
I. Minoxidil
II. Isosorbide
III. Bosentan

A)I and II only
B)All of the above
C)I only.
D)II and III only

Answer 2

All of the above

Question 3

Which of the following drugs is NOT an antineoplastic?

A)Carmustine
B)Alendronate
C)Etoposide
D)Gemcitabine

Answer 3

Alendronate

Question 4

Which of the following trade names is NOT correctly matched with its generic name?

A)Bactroban, mupirocin
B)Cialis, tadalafil
C)Evista, raloxifene
D)Bentcard, olmesartan

Question 5

Which of the following forms is pyridostigmine available in?
I. IM injectable
II. IV injectable
III. Tablet
IV. Syrup

A)I only
B)I, II and III only
C)All of the above
D)III and IV only

Question 6

Which of the following medications is a neuromuscular blocker?

A)Milrinone
B)Amlodipine
C)Finasteride
D)Vecuronium

Question 7

Of the following generic and brand names, which are INCORRECTLY matched?

A)Prazosin/Minipress
B)Tizanidine/Zanaflex
C)Miglitol/Glucophage
D)Gabapentin/Neurontin

Question 8

Which of the following forms is phenobarbital available in?
I. Elixir: 20mg/5 mL
II. Pre-filled syringes (50 mg/mL in 2 mL syringes)
III. Suppositories (30, 120, 200 mg)
IV. Capsule: 100 mg
V. Tablets, timed release (100, 200 mg)

A)II and V only
B)I, II, III and IV only
C)III only
D)III and IV only

Question 9

A patient is diagnosed and cholestyramine is prescribed. What is the likely diagnosis?

A)Hypertension
B)Herpes simplex infection
C)Type 2 diabetes
D)Biliary obstruction

Question 10

Which is the correct conversion from grams to grains?

A)1 gram =15.43 grains
B)1 gram = 60 grains
C)1 gram = 1 minim
D)1 gram = 1 fluid ounce

Question 11

Which of the following abbreviations is no longer recommended for use due to potential medication errors?

A)tid
B)IU
C)iv
D)PO

Question 12

Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor?

A)Verapamil
B)Furosemide
C)Budenoside
D)Sindenafil

Question 13

Which of the following vitamins are excreted in the urine?

A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin B2
C)Vitamin E
D)Vitamin D

Question 14

Which of the following medications would be appropriate to treat a Candida infection in a child of 12 years?

A)Tobramycin
B)Fluconozole
C)Ampicillin
D)Clindamycin

Question 15

Of the following organisms, which would be susceptible to azithromycin?
I. Chlamydia pneumoniae
II. Staphyloccoccus pneumoniae
III. Mycoplasma hominis

A)I only
B)I and II only
C)I and III only
D)I, II, and III

Question 16

Ribavarin is a ____________ used to treat __________ that rarely has the adverse effect of inducing ____________.

A)Serotonin antagonist, nausea and vomiting, paralysis
B)Voltage-gated Na+ channel blocker, Parkinson's disease, aplastic anemia
C)Synthetic nucleoside analog, chronic hepatitis C, cardiac arrest
D)HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, hyperlipidemia, rhabdomyolysis

Question 17

Which of the following is the brand name for rifabutin?

A)Sandimmune
B)Neoral
C)Mycobutin
D)Gengraf

Question 18

Which of the following would be useful as an effective anti-androgen therapy in a 78-year-old patient with prostate cancer?
I. Bilateral orchiectomy.
II. A testosterone antagonist such as bicalutamide only.
III. An LH-RH antagonist such as cetrorelix.

A)I only
B)III only
C)I and/or III
D)II only

Question 19

What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept)?

A)Mycophenolate mofetil is a neurokinin-1 antagonist used to prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
B)Mycophenolate mofetil is a 5HT3 antagonist used to prevent post-operative nausea.
C)Mycophenolate mofetil is a corticosteroid analog used as an immunosuppressant.
D)Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant used to prevent organ rejection.

Question 20

Why is carbidopa added to levodopa for the treatment of Parkinson's disease?

A)It prevents degradation of levodopa in the periphery.
B)It minimizes some of the side effects of levodopa used alone.
C)Addition of carbidopa stabilizes levodopa by interfering with Phase III metabolism.
D)Carbidopa complexes with levodopa to allow increased solubility.

Question 21

Which of the following forms is methumazole available in?
I. Troche
II. Tablet
III. Cream
IV. Capsule

A)I only
B)II only
C)II and IV only
D)Methimazole is available in all the listed forms.

Question 22

Which of the following is a brand name for Orlistat?

A)Xenical
B)Zenicote
C)Xenibrium
D)Xenlast

Question 23

Which of the following drugs are removed during hemodialysis?
I. Allopurinol
II. Metoprolol
III. Metformin

A)I only
B)II only
C)I, II and III
D)III only

Question 24

Of the following drugs, which are considered anti-hyperuricemic agents?
I. Probenecid
II. Allopurinol
III. Dobutamine

A)I and II only
B)I and III only
C)II and III only
D)None of the three listed agents are anti-hyperuricemic agents.

Question 25

Which of the following describes ivermectin?

A)Anti-Viral
B)Anti-Parasitic
C)Antibody

Question 26

Which of the following drugs typically has an effect of decreasing the heart rate and blood pressure, therefore decreasing the oxygen demand to the heart?

A)Beta Blockers
B)Statins
C)ACE Inhibitors
D)Retrovirals

Question 27

Which of the following drugs could be used for a baby who is suffering from Apnea?

A)Theophylline
B)Caffiene Citrate
C)Terbulatine
D)A and B
E)B and C