Deck 2: Principles of Infection Control

Question 1

Clinical microbiology is concerned with _____ the organism.1.identifying
2)controlling
3)isolating
4)eradication of

A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1,2,and 4
D) 1,2,and 3

Answer 1

D
Clinical microbiology addresses the identification,isolation,and control of pathogens,not their eradication.

Question 2

Which of the following is typically associated with tuberculosis?

A) Mycobacterium
B) Pseudomonas
C) Clostridium
D) Bordetella

Answer 2

A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism responsible for pulmonary,spinal,and miliary tuberculosis.

Question 3

Viruses are usually described as nonliving because they:

A) do not have a cell wall.
B) are unable to self-replicate.
C) must create endospores to survive.
D) cannot live without another living organism.

Answer 3

B
Viruses must invade a living organism to replicate.This is the reason that they are described as nonliving.They do have a wall-like structure that is made of protein.They do not create endospores and are able to live outside a host; however,they cannot replicate outside of a host.

Question 4

Which of the following is spread by direct contact?

A) Measles
B) Hepatitis B
C) Staphylococcus
D) Histoplasmosis

Question 5

Which of the following is a gram-negative pathogen?

A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Clostridium botulinum

Question 6

The word vibrio refers to:

A) The many shapes bacteria can assume
B) The erratic movement of bacteria
C) Comma-shaped morphology
D) Spirochete helical shape

Question 7

A sputum specimen is received in the microbiology laboratory.Gram staining and a microscopic examination reveal a paired,spherical,purple-stained organism.It can be reasonably assumed that this organism is which of the following?

A) Gram-negative bacilli
B) Gram-negative staphylococci
C) Gram-positive diplococci
D) Gram-positive bacilli

Question 8

A nosocomial infection is best defined as a:

A) respiratory system-borne pathogen.
B) hospital-acquired pathogen.
C) bacterial or viral organism.
D) blood-borne pathogen.

Question 9

A 78-year-old man is going to be discharged today after having abdominal surgery several days ago.The nurse notices that the patient has a temperature of 101.5° F and has some tan secretions in his suture area. A specimen is sent to the laboratory.The results show the presence of gram-positive cocci.The statement that might explain this condition is which of the following?

A) The antibiotic was ineffective.
B) The patient was not compliant with therapy.
C) It is normal to have secretions at the suture site.
D) A health care-associated infection should be considered.

Question 10

Which of the following is a bacterium?

A) Herpes simplex
B) Pneumocystis carinii
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Candida albicans

Question 11

Ventilator-associated pneumonia is commonly caused by which of the following?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Enterobacteriaceae
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Question 12

An organism that appears reddish-pink after Gram staining is usually called:

A) gram-negative.
B) gram-positive.
C) non-acid-fast.
D) acid-fast.

Question 13

A virus can be described as a parasite with which of the following traits?

A) Nucleic acid core
B) Carbohydrate sheath
C) Size of less than 20 nm
D) Ability to produce spores

Question 14

A prokaryotic,one-celled organism that ranges in size from 0.5 µm to 50 µm is usually classified as which of the following?

A) Virus
B) Protozoan
C) Bacterium
D) Retrovirus

Question 15

When speaking about the morphology of bacteria,one is referring to its:

A) size.
B) shape.
C) function.
D) movement.

Question 16

Bacteria that require oxygen for growth are typically known as:

A) aerobes.
B) airborne.
C) anaerobes.
D) autotrophs.

Question 17

To survive adverse conditions,such as excessive heat and dryness,bacteria might do which of the following?

A) Store excess water in special sporelike structures
B) Form large colonies in a short period of time
C) Speed up their enzymatic processes
D) Form endospores

Question 18

Infectious diseases are not usually caused by:

A) ticks.
B) bacteria.
C) viruses.
D) algae.

Question 19

The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is useful in identifying which family of microorganisms?

A) Streptococci
B) Mycobacterium
C) Staphylococci
D) Pseudomonas

Question 20

Which of the following is true concerning facultative anaerobes?

A) They have limited oxygen tolerance.
B) They require complex nutrients to exist.
C) They cannot live in oxygen environments.
D) They require simple inorganic nutrients to exist.

Question 21

A patient's susceptibility to Pseudomonas aeruginosa is increased by:

A) organ transplantation.
B) multiple myeloma.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) oncochemotherapy.

Question 22

You are visiting a country that has been plagued by heavy rains and flooding.The population is suffering from widespread disease.Which of the following is the most likely cause of the disease?

A) Cholera
B) Influenza
C) Legionella
D) Salmonellosis

Question 23

Airborne droplet nuclei are responsible for the transmission of:

A) legionellosis.
B) histoplasmosis.
C) staphylococcus.
D) tuberculosis.

Question 24

Which of the following is a common pathogen that could cause a disruption of normal flora in a patient receiving antibiotic therapy?

A) Clostridium difficile
B) Pneumocystis carinii
C) Enterobacteriaceae spp.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 25

The skin and mucosal tissue can prevent the spread of infectious agents by acting as _____ barriers.

A) immunologic
B) mechanical
C) epidermal
D) soft

Question 26

Which of the following is a virus that has a respiratory route of transmission?

A) Polio
B) Hepatitis
C) Coronavirus
D) Herpes simplex

Question 27

An agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects only is best described as a:

A) virucide.
B) germicide.
C) bactericide.
D) disinfectant.

Question 28

Which of the following is the protozoan organism that is associated with pneumonia in immune-compromised patients?

A) Schistosoma
B) Shigella
C) Pneumocystis
D) Rickettsiae

Question 29

Transmission of an infectious agent by flies would fall into which mode of disease transfer?

A) Vector-borne
B) Airborne
C) Contact
D) Indirect

Question 30

Which of the following are the two primary human barriers to infection in the health care setting?

A) Disinfection and sterilization
B) Immunologic and mechanical
C) Disinfection and pasteurization
D) Hand-washing and personal protective equipment

Question 31

All of the following organisms can be transmitted via the respiratory tract,except:

A) hepatitis.
B) influenza.
C) varicella.
D) parainfluenza.

Question 32

The spread of diseases requires all of the following,except:

A) pathogen source.
B) immunosuppression.
C) mode of transmission.
D) susceptible host.

Question 33

Which of the following medical states increase patient susceptibility to nosocomial infection?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Altered B cells
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Hypogammaglobulinemia

Question 34

Sterilization differs from pasteurization in that sterilization destroys:

A) bacteria and fungi only.
B) only bacteria.
C) all microbes.
D) only viruses.

Question 35

All of the following are factors that affect disinfection and sterilization,except:

A) shape of the pathogen.
B) number of organisms.
C) resistance of the pathogen.
D) strength of the germicide.

Question 36

Chlamydia species are classified as:

A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) protozoa.
D) intracellular parasites.

Question 37

Which of the following is the type of organism that causes malaria and trypanosomiasis?

A) Virus
B) Parasite
C) Protozoa
D) Bacteria

Question 38

Which of the following are true about the amount of time required to kill microbes?
1)Time decreases as the strength of the germicide decreases.
2)Time is directly proportional to the number of pathogens.
3)Time increases as the microbial population increases.
4)Time varies with the resistance of the organism.

A) 2,3,and 4
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3

Question 39

A budding unicellular organism revealed in the microscopic examination of sputum is most likely:

A) yeast.
B) Bacillus.
C) Rickettsia.
D) Clostridium.

Question 40

Which of the following is the least likely mode of transmission for a nosocomial infection?

A) Airborne
B) Through fomites
C) Vector-borne
D) Direct contact

Question 41

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that blood spills be cleaned with:

A) ethanol.
B) peracetic acid.
C) sodium hypochlorite.
D) alkaline glutaraldehyde.

Question 42

Phenolic compounds are generally diluted to what concentration?

A) 0.04% to 0.05%
B) 0.4% to 5.0%
C) 40% to 50%
D) 4% to 5%

Question 43

In general,germicides are most effective in which of the following environments?

A) Lower acidity
B) Lower alkalinity
C) Lower temperatures
D) Higher temperatures

Question 44

Acid glutaraldehyde is tuberculocidal with a minimum exposure time of _____ minutes.

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

Question 45

In batch pasteurization,equipment is placed in a water bath heated to ____ for 30 minutes.

A) 63° C
B) 72° C
C) 163° C
D) 175° C

Question 46

A typical high-level disinfectant can kill organisms-but not spores-in what time period?

A) 24 hours
B) 1 to 2 hours
C) 12 to 18 hours
D) Less than 45 minutes

Question 47

Under normal conditions,high-level disinfectants can kill all of the following organisms,except:

A) fungal buds.
B) bacterial spores.
C) gram-positive bacteria.
D) gram-negative bacteria.

Question 48

Alcohols such as ethyl and isopropyl are unable to kill:

A) fungi.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) bacterial spores.

Question 49

The respiratory therapist is in a contact isolation room with a patient.The stethoscope for use with this patient is located within the patient's room.Which of the following is the most appropriate solution for disinfecting this stethoscope?

A) Acetic acid
B) Ethylene oxide
C) Glutaraldehyde
D) Isopropyl alcohol

Question 50

The statement "A disinfectant's potency increases as its concentration increases" is not true for:

A) phenols.
B) alcohols.
C) iodophors.
D) glutaraldehydes.

Question 51

Quaternary ammonium salts are routinely used to sanitize:

A) ventilator tubing.
B) ventilator surfaces.
C) walls and furniture.
D) critical respiratory care equipment.

Question 52

Flash pasteurization exposes equipment to which of the following?

A) Water bath at 72° C for 15 minutes
B) Water bath at 63° C for 30 minutes
C) Moist heat at 72° C for 15 minutes
D) Moist heat at 72° C for 15 seconds

Question 53

The ability of alcohols to act as an effective disinfectant decreases significantly when their concentration drops below:

A) 30%.
B) 50%.
C) 70%.
D) 90%.

Question 54

After a ventilator is cleaned and ready for use,it should be stored in:

A) the hallway near the freight elevators.
B) the back of the preparation area.
C) the back of the clean-up area.
D) a separate "clean room."

Question 55

Carbolic acid is:

A) an acetic acid derivative.
B) a common disinfectant.
C) the basis for phenol derivatives.
D) the only form of acid glutaraldehyde.

Question 56

An oxygen atom can be added to acetic acid to form an excellent disinfectant with sterilization capabilities.This disinfecting agent is:

A) peroxide.
B) peroxidic acid.
C) peracetic acid.
D) acetic peroxide.

Question 57

Bacterial spores can be inactivated by exposure to:

A) 10 hours of iodophors.
B) 8 hours of glutaraldehyde.
C) 30 minutes of isopropyl alcohol.
D) 6 hours of quaternary ammonium compounds.

Question 58

Which of the following disinfectants/sterilizing agents is a respiratory irritant?

A) Phenolic
B) Iodophors
C) Formaldehyde
D) Isopropyl alcohol

Question 59

A residue will remain on equipment exposed to:

A) formaldehyde.
B) isopropyl alcohol.
C) hydrogen peroxide.
D) quaternary ammonium compounds.

Question 60

During a home care visit,the respiratory therapist is instructing the patient and family member on the use of the patient's equipment.Which of the following household items should the respiratory therapist inform the patient to use to decontaminate the equipment?

A) Alcohol
B) Vinegar
C) Bleach
D) Lye

Question 61

Which of the following figure represents a spirochete?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 62

Commercial-grade hydrogen peroxide is an effective disinfectant at room temperature after how many minutes?

A) 5
B) 10
C) 30
D) 60

Question 63

Which of the following should routinely be used to ensure proper function and quality control of an autoclave?
1)Pressure-sensitive tape
2)Biologic indicators
3)Chemical indicators
4)Heat-sensitive tape

A) 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 1,2,and 3
D) 1,2,and 4

Question 64

Which of the following illnesses requires airborne precautions?

A) Measles
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 65

Dry-heat sterilization involves a 1-hour to 2-hour exposure at approximately:

A) 100° C.
B) 132° C.
C) 170° C.
D) 200° C.

Question 66

Which of the following indicates the minimum time a tracheostomy inner cannula should be soaked in 3% hydrogen peroxide to be an effective disinfectant during a patient's tracheostomy care?

A) 1 minute
B) 5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes

Question 67

A Gram stain leaves the following organism violet.Which pathogen could this be?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 68

Which of the following physical properties are required for an autoclave to sterilize biohazardous material?
1)Dry heat
2)A vacuum
3)100% humidity
4)Increased air pressure

A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 1,2,and 4
D) 2,3,and 4

Question 69

Which isolation precaution requires the patient to be placed in a private isolation room?

A) Droplet
B) Contact
C) Airborne
D) Universal

Question 70

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends a _____ dilution of bleach to water to clean up blood spills.

A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:10
D) 1:100

Question 71

Which type of germicide requires activation with bicarbonate?

A) 5% acetic acid
B) 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde
C) 3% hydrogen peroxide
D) 10% sodium hypochlorite

Question 72

According to the classification of infection-risk devices described by Spaulding,ventilator tubing is considered:

A) critical.
B) noncritical.
C) semicritical.
D) highly critical.

Question 73

Which of these precautions must be followed in the treatment of a patient with an influenza infection?
1)Contact
2)Droplet
3)Airborne
4)Standard

A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1,2,and 4
D) 2,3,and 4

Question 74

The below figure represents which of the following bacteria?

A) Bacillus
B) Diplococcus
C) Streptococcus
D) Staphylococcus

Question 75

At high altitudes,sterilization by boiling must be prolonged primarily because of which of the following?

A) Increased oxygen content
B) Reduced oxygen content
C) Increased normal boiling point
D) Reduced normal boiling point

Question 76

According to the classification described by Spaulding,which of the following items of medical equipment fall into the category of noncritical infection risk?

A) Scalpels
B) Ventilators
C) Ventilator tubing
D) Manual resuscitators

Question 77

In preparation for an arterial blood gas puncture on a noninfectious patient in the pulmonary laboratory,which of the following items of protective apparel should be used?
1)Gown
2)Gloves
3)Shoe covers
4)Eye protection

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 2,3,and 4
D) 1,2,3,and 4

Question 78

Which of the following is the most important infection control procedure for anyone who has direct patient contact?

A) Sterile latex gloves
B) Disposal of sharps
C) Hand hygiene
D) Face masks

Question 79

Droplet isolation precautions call for all of the following,except:

A) face masks.
B) latex gloves.
C) protective eyewear.
D) special air-handling.

Question 80

A 1.25% solution of acetic acid has been shown to be an effective bactericidal agent against:

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Micobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae