Deck 1: Pharmacology and Protein Structures

Question 1

Which of the following drugs is the treatment of choice for Candida albicans infection?

A)Tolnaftate
B)Fluconazole
C)Griseofulvin
D)Amphotericin B
E) Toradol

Answer 1

Fluconazole

Question 2

Which of the following undesirable events does not belong to NSAIDs?

A)Vomiting
B)Interstitial nephritis
C)Respiratory failure
D)Peptic ulcer

Answer 2

Respiratory failure

Question 3

Which of the following drugs is considered a drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

A)Prednisone (Colisone)
B)Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
C)Indomethacin (Indocin)
D)Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Answer 3

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Question 4

Which of the following diseases is Acyclovir (Zovirax) a drug of choice for?

A)HIV
B)HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
C)CMV
D)Influenza A viruses

Question 5

Which of the following drugs is not a topical antibiotic?

A)Neomycin
B)Bacitracin
C)Polymyxin B
D)Ceftriaxone

Question 6

Which of the following effects is included among the most common side effects seen after prolonged use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors?

A)CHF
B)Hypertension
C)Dyspnea
D)Cough

Question 7

Which of the following drugs is not a calcium channel blocker?

A)Nifedipine
B)Verapamil
C)Amplodipine
D)Metoprolol

Question 8

Complications of high-dose glucocorticoid therapy include which of the following?

A)Excessive growth in children and acromegaly in adults
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis

Question 9

Which of the following antibiotics can be nephrotoxic and should be used with caution in renal insufficiency?

A)Aminoglycosides and vancomycin
B)Chloramphenicol and erythromycin
C)Nafcillin and oxacillin
D)Moxifloxacin and penicillin

Question 10

Which of the following is not a frequent adverse effect commonly seen with beta blockers?

A)Impotence
B)Exacerbation of asthma
C)Tachycardia
D)Atrioventricular block

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true of anesthetics?

A)Drugs with low blood solubility will rapidly induce anesthesia
B)Drugs with high blood solubility will rapidly induce anesthesia
C)An anesthetic with high blood solubility will have a quicker time to recovery
D)Nitrous oxide will slowly induce anesthesia

Question 12

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide?

A)Atrioventricular (AV) blockade
B)Constipation
C)Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
D)Potassium wasting

Question 13

Which of the following beta-lactam drugs has good activity against beta-lactamase-producing organisms and penetrates readily into cerebrospinal fluid?

A)Amoxicillin
B)Cefazolin
C)Clavulanic acid
D)Imipenem

Question 14

Which of the following agents used in general anesthesia is least likely to cause postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A)Enflurane
B)Etomidate
C)Isoflurane
D)Propofol

Question 15

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of lithium carbonate?

A)Dry mouth
B)Hyperthyroidism
C)Leukopenia
D)Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

Question 16

Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by drugs of the class to which amoxicillin belongs?

A)Alanine racemase
B)Beta lactamase
C)Enolpyruvate transferase
D)Transpeptidase

Question 17

Which of the following drugs is selectively antifungal because of the difference between cholesterol (in mammalian cell membranes) and ergosterol (in fungal membranes)?

A)Amphotericin B
B)Caspofungin
C)Fluconazole
D)Griseofulvin

Question 18

Which of the following drugs is useful in rheumatoid arthritis because of its binding with tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)?

A)Leflunomide
B)Infliximab
C)Methotrexate
D)Paclitaxel

Question 19

Which of the following antifungal drugs is strongly associated with drug interactions resulting from inhibition of CYP 3A4?

A)Amphotericin B
B)Caspofungin
C)Fluconazole
D)Ketoconazole

Question 20

Which of the following drugs reduces LDL cholesterol by inhibiting an intestinal transport protein?

A)Atorvastatin
B)Cholestyramine
C)Ezetimibe
D)Gemfibrozil

Question 21

Which of the following drugs is considered a first-line agent in the chronic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and in the treatment of choriocarcinoma?

A)Cyclosporine
B)Hydroxychloroquine
C)Methotrexate
D)Sulfasalazine

Question 22

Which of the following drugs blocks the action of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor?

A)Bradykinin
B)Enalapril
C)Losartan
D)Prazosin

Question 23

Which of the following drugs corrects pernicious anemia and prevents the neurological consequences of the disease?

A)Beta-carotene
B)Ferrous sulfate
C)Folic acid
D)Hydroxocobalamin

Question 24

ACE inhibitors (in addition to other effects) are known to exert which of the following responses?

A)Decrease both ventricular preload and afterload
B)Increase coronary perfusion
C)Increase efficiency of oxygen extraction by cardiac and skeletal muscle
D)Produce a positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect

Question 25

Which of the following drugs would be most beneficial in treating acute, severe pulmonary edema?

A)Amiloride
B)Furosemide
C)Hydrochlorothiazide
D)Losartan

Question 26

Which of the following antiviral agents uses viral thymidine kinase as part of its activation pathway?

A)Acyclovir
B)Amantadine
C)Foscarnet
D)Saquinavir

Question 27

Which of the following antiviral drugs is correctly associated with the appropriate primary toxicity?

A)Amantadine-neutropenia
B)Didanosine-pancreatitis
C)Ribavirin-hepatitis
D)Ritonavir-hemolytic anemia

Question 28

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A)Clonidine
B)Hydralazine
C)Hydrochlorothiazide
D)Losartan

Question 29

Which of the following antitubercular agents is a strong inducer of hepatic cytochrome P450?

A)Ethambutol
B)Isoniazid
C)Rifampin
D)Streptomycin

Question 30

Which of the following agents produces vasodilation by increasing nitric oxide synthesis in endothelial cells?

A)Diazoxide
B)Histamine
C)Minoxidil
D)Nitroprusside

Question 31

Which of the following drugs is the best treatment for uncomplicated primary syphilis?

A)Ciprofloxacin
B)Clarithromycin
C)Doxycycline
D)Penicillin G

Question 32

The mechanism of anesthetic action for lidocaine involves which of the following?

A)Blockade of axonal voltage-dependent calcium channels
B)Blockade of axonal voltage-dependent sodium channels
C)Hyperpolarization of axons via enhanced chloride influx
D)Hyperpolarization of axons via enhanced potassium efflux

Question 33

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of oral anticoagulants such as warfarin?

A)Break down thrombin
B)Form an active complex with
C)Plasminogen
D)Inhibit hepatic carboxylation of coagulation factor precursors

Question 34

Which of the following statements associates the correct mechanism of action with a drug used in Type II (noninsulin-dependent) diabetes?

A)Acarbose-reduction of insulin resistance
B)Glipizide-inhibition of intestinal alphaglucosidase
C)Metformin-inhibition of atp-sensitive potassium channels
D)Repaglinide-modulation of pancreatic insulin release

Question 35

Which of the following drugs is useful in treatment of gout with recurrent renal urate stones because it decreases the excretion of uric acid?

A)Allopurinol
B)Aspirin
C)Colchicine
D)Indomethacin

Question 36

Which of the following drugs is used in treating major depression and has the greatest sedative effect?

A)Bupropion
B)Desipramine
C)Fluoxetine
D)Mirtazapine

Question 37

Which of the following antidepressants is most selective in blocking reuptake of serotonin as compared with norepinephrine?

A)Amitriptyline
B)Citalopram
C)Desipramine
D)Imipramine

Question 38

Which of the following drugs can be used in rheumatoid arthritis with the lowest probable incidence of GI complications?

A)Aspirin
B)Celecoxib
C)Ibuprofen
D)Misoprostol

Question 39

If a drug is highly bound to plasma proteins, it:

A)Has a large volume of distribution
B)Has a high renal clearance
C)Is a likely candidate for drug interactions
D)Is most likely carried by alpha-glycoprotein

Question 40

Which one of the following routes of drug administration produces the most rapid absorption?

A)Inhalation
B)Intravenous
C)Oral
D)Rectal

Question 41

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause symptoms of severe depressive disorder when used in the treatment of hypertensive patients?

A)Captopril
B)Hydrochlorothiazide
C)Prazosin
D)Reserpine

Question 42

The most common manifestation of lidocaine toxicity is?

A)CNS dysfunction
B)Drug fever
C)Hypertension
D)Hypokalemia

Question 43

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against all strains of H. influenza, M. catarrhalis, and N. gonorrhea?

A)Amoxicillin
B)Ceftriaxone
C)Clindamycin
D)TMP-SMX

Question 44

Which one of the following drugs inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, preventing the translocation step via its intersection with the 50s ribosomal subunit?

A)Clindamycin
B)Gentamicin
C)Chloramphenicol
D)Imipenem

Question 45

Which one of the following anti-inflammatory drugs used in rheumatoid arthritis has a mechanism of action that leads to a decrease in tumor necrosis factor?

A)Etanercept
B)Sulfasalazine
C)Prednisone
D)Rofecoxib

Question 46

When used in the management of inflammatory disorders, glucocorticoids are likely to cause:

A)Hypoglycemia
B)Decrease in blood pressure
C)Anabolic actions in wound healing
D)Increase in intraocular pressure

Question 47

All of the following agents are among recommended lines of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease except:

A)Systemic or inhaled corticosteroids
B)Beta agonists
C)Beta blockers
D)Anticholinergics

Question 48

Which of the following drug classes remains the mainstay of therapy for CHF to date?

A)Alpha blockers
B)CCBs
C)ACEIs
D)ARBs

Question 49

Which of the following clinical features is a sign of digitalis toxicity?

A)Diaphoresis
B)Nausea
C)Pallor
D)Fruity breath

Question 50

Which of the following diseases is Acyclovir the drug of choice for?

A)HIV
B)HSV 1 and 2
C)CMV
D)Influenza A viruses

Question 51

Which of the following classes of drugs is the first-line therapy in the management of an acute asthma attack?

A)Steroids
B)?2-agonists
C)Theophylline
D)Antibiotics

Question 52

Which one of the following features is a major common side effect of TCAs (Tricyclics Antidepressants)?

A)Shortness of breath
B)Fainting
C)Large Intestine ulcers
D)Distal muscular weakness

Question 53

Which of the following is one of the main indications of lidocaine?

A)To increase cardiac contractility
B)To control premature ventricular contractions
C)To control atrial flutter
D)To control atrial fibrillation

Question 54

All of the following are important in quickly mediating and correcting states of hypoglycemia except:

A)Glucagon
B)Epinephrine
C)Glucocorticoid
D)Decrease in insulin secretion

Question 55

Which of the following drugs is associated with discoloration of the skin, photosensitivity, thyroid dysfunction, and pulmonary complications?

A)Amiodarone
B)Diltiazem
C)Ibutilide
D)Lidocaine

Question 56

The appropriate antibiotic to prescribe for cellulitis while awaiting specific culture verification is:

A)Penicillin
B)Erythromycin
C)Tetracycline
D)Azathioprine

Question 57

Absolute contraindications to prescribing beta blockers include all of the following except:

A)Heart rate < 60 beats per minute
B)First-degree AV block
C)Severe left ventricular dysfunction
D)Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 58

Nitrates have all of the following properties except:

A)Reducing cardiac preload
B)Reducing cardiac afterload
C)Dilating major capacitance vessels of the coronary
D)Improving clinical outcome when used orally during acute myocardial infarction

Question 59

Sodium nitroprusside has all of the following actions except:

A)Arteriolar dilator
B)Venodilator
C)Decreasing preload and afterload
D)Duration of action of 1 to 2 hours

Question 60

Which of the following effects is the most important adverse reaction of spironolactone therapy?

A)Anti-androgen
B)Cardiac arrhythmia
C)Dehydration
D)Hyperkalemia

Question 61

Which of the following drugs belongs to the class of ACE inhibitors?

A)Atenolol
B)Diltiazem
C)Enalapril
D)Losartan

Question 62

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of atenolol?

A)Alpha-1 receptor blockade
B)Calcium channel blockade
C)Nonselective beta blockade
D)Selective beta-1 receptor blockade

Question 63

Which of the following is the most common side effect of colchicine?

A)Cardiac side effects
B)Gastrointestinal side effects
C)Hepatic side effects
D)Pulmonary side effects

Question 64

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A)Block cell wall synthesis
B)Block nucleotide synthesis
C)Block protein synthesis at the 30s ribosomal subunit
D)Block protein synthesis at the 50s ribosomal subunit

Question 65

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of heparin?

A)Binds to antithrombin lll
B)Converts plasminogen to plasmin
C)Inhibits platelet aggregation
D)Interferes with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

Question 66

Which of the following best describes the location of a quadrate tubercle?

A)Intertrochanteric crest of the femur
B)Proximal end of tibia
C)Distal end of fibula
D)Pubic symphysis

Question 67

Regarding the secondary structure of proteins, the ?-helix is a coiled structure stabilized by:

A)Hydrogen bonds
B)Nitrogen bonds
C)Amino acids
D)Disulphide bonds

Question 68

Which of the following types of protein structures is formed by the process of protein folding?

A)Primary structure
B)Secondary structure
C)Tertiary structure
D)All types of protein structures

Question 69

The hemoglobin molecule is a typical example of which kind of protein structure?

A)Primary structure
B)Secondary structure
C)Tertiary structure
D)Quaternary structure

Question 70

An abundant protein that provides the structural framework for tissues and organs is known as:

A)Elastin
B)Collagen
C)Enzyme
D)Mucin

Question 71

Collagen is high in all of the following amino acids except:

A)Glycine
B)Proline
C)Hydroxylysine
D)Isoleucine

Question 72

Which of the following is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

A)Patella
B)Fabella
C)Cyamella
D)Sesamoid bone of the foot

Question 73

Considering the nerve supply to the anterior and lateral compartments of leg, which of the following leg muscles is not supplied by deep peroneal nerve?

A)Tibialis anterior
B)Extensor hallucis longus
C)Peroneus tertius
D)Peroneus longus

Question 74

Which of the following statements best describes the action of peroneus brevis muscle of the leg?

A)Dosriflexes foot
B)Extends big toe
C)Inverts foot
D)Everts and plantar flexes foot

Question 75

Which of the following muscles is not considered a "superficial" muscle of the posterior compartment of the leg?

A)Gastrocnemius
B)Soleus
C)Plantaris
D)Popliteus

Question 76

In which cavity are the brain and spinal cord located?

A)Dorsal cavity
B)Sinus cavity
C)Abdominal cavity
D)Thoracic cavity

Question 77

Which of the following bones/bone structures stores fats?

A)Long bone
B)Spongy bone
C)Yellow bone marrow
D)Red bone marrow

Question 78

Which of the following statements is true about osteoclasts?

A)Osteoclasts destroy the bone matrix.
B)Osteoclasts deposit calcium into the bone.
C)Osteocalsts are cells that combat pathogens in the damaged bone.
D)Osteoclasts are a type of bacterial calls infecting the bone.

Question 79

Which of the following statements is true about glucagon?

A)Glucagon speeds up the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
B)Glucagon slows down the production of lactic acid.
C)Glucagon elevates blood glucose levels.
D)Glucagon lowers the blood glucose levels.

Question 80

What are the hormones that regulate blood calcium levels?

A)Insulin and glucagon
B)Calcitonin and glycogen
C)Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
D)Estrogen and progesterone