Deck 2: Cardiovascular Medications
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ملء الشاشة (f)
Deck 2: Cardiovascular Medications
1
Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:
A)Oral
B)Sublingual
C)Intramuscular
D)Intravenous
A)Oral
B)Sublingual
C)Intramuscular
D)Intravenous
Intramuscular
2
Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic:
A)It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
B)It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels
C)It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D)It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
A)It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
B)It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels
C)It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D)It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
3
Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:
A)Amiodarone
B)Mexiletine
C)Sotalol
D)Procainamide
A)Amiodarone
B)Mexiletine
C)Sotalol
D)Procainamide
Amiodarone
4
The following is true of procainamide except:
A)It generates an active metabolite in the body
B)Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
C)On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness
D)It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
A)It generates an active metabolite in the body
B)Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
C)On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness
D)It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
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5
The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of is:
A)Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
B)Prolongation of action potential duration
C)Prolongation of effective refractory period
D)Depression of membrane responsiveness
A)Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
B)Prolongation of action potential duration
C)Prolongation of effective refractory period
D)Depression of membrane responsiveness
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6
Quinidine is now used primarily for:
A)Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
B)Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter
C)Termination of ventricular tachycardia
D)Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
A)Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
B)Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter
C)Termination of ventricular tachycardia
D)Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
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7
The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action:
A)Disopyramide
B)Quinidine
C)Procainamide
D)Lignocaine
A)Disopyramide
B)Quinidine
C)Procainamide
D)Lignocaine
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8
The following is not true about :
A)It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state
B)It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C)It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels
D)It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
A)It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state
B)It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C)It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels
D)It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
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9
Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following:
A)Symptomatic relief
B)Regression of pathological changes
C)Prolongation of life expectancy
D)Both 'A' and 'C'
A)Symptomatic relief
B)Regression of pathological changes
C)Prolongation of life expectancy
D)Both 'A' and 'C'
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10
Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for:
A)Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure
B)Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
C)Arresting disease progression
D)Both 'A' and 'B'
A)Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure
B)Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
C)Arresting disease progression
D)Both 'A' and 'B'
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11
Vasodilators are used to treat:
A)Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction
B)Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction
C)Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction
D)All of the above
A)Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction
B)Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction
C)Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction
D)All of the above
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12
Given drug is administered by the following routes except:
A)Oral
B)Sublingual
C)Intramuscular
D)Intravenous
A)Oral
B)Sublingual
C)Intramuscular
D)Intravenous
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13
Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina?
A)Propranolol
B)Atenolol
C)Verapamil
D)Dipyridamole
A)Propranolol
B)Atenolol
C)Verapamil
D)Dipyridamole
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14
The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect:
A)Amlodipine
B)Nifedipine
C)Diltiazem
D)Verapamil
A)Amlodipine
B)Nifedipine
C)Diltiazem
D)Verapamil
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15
The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is:
A)Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia
B)Both cause bradycardia
C)Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
D)Both cause tachycardia
A)Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia
B)Both cause bradycardia
C)Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
D)Both cause tachycardia
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16
Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
A)Nifedipine
B)Felodipine
C)Verapamil
D)Isosorbide mononitrate
A)Nifedipine
B)Felodipine
C)Verapamil
D)Isosorbide mononitrate
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17
Given drug is
A)Nifedipine
B)Felodipine
C)Verapamil
D)Isosorbide mononitrate
A)Nifedipine
B)Felodipine
C)Verapamil
D)Isosorbide mononitrate
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18
The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking:
A)Coronary vasospasm
B)Thrombus formation
C)Vagal activation
D)Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
A)Coronary vasospasm
B)Thrombus formation
C)Vagal activation
D)Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
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19
Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?
A)Nicorandil
B)Hydralazine
C)Glibenclamide
D)Amiloride
A)Nicorandil
B)Hydralazine
C)Glibenclamide
D)Amiloride
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20
The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are:
A)They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart
B)They have no effect on A-V conduction
C)They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels
D)All of the above
A)They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart
B)They have no effect on A-V conduction
C)They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels
D)All of the above
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21
The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels:
A)L-type voltage sensitive channels
B)T-type voltage sensitive channels
C)N-type voltage sensitive channels
D)Receptor operated calcium channels
A)L-type voltage sensitive channels
B)T-type voltage sensitive channels
C)N-type voltage sensitive channels
D)Receptor operated calcium channels
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22
Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor:
A)Diazoxide
B)Sodium nitroprusside
C)Minoxidil
D)Nicorandil
A)Diazoxide
B)Sodium nitroprusside
C)Minoxidil
D)Nicorandil
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23
Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because:
A)They antagonise each other's side effects
B)Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
C)Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce cardiac work
D)Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
A)They antagonise each other's side effects
B)Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
C)Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce cardiac work
D)Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
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24
The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
A)Reduction of circulating blood volume
B)Reduction in cardiac output
C)Decreased sympathetic tone
D)Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
A)Reduction of circulating blood volume
B)Reduction in cardiac output
C)Decreased sympathetic tone
D)Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
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25
Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to:
A)Stimulation of vasomotor centre
B)Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings
C)Agonistic action on vascular ?-agonists adrenergic receptors
D)Cardiac stimulation
A)Stimulation of vasomotor centre
B)Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings
C)Agonistic action on vascular ?-agonists adrenergic receptors
D)Cardiac stimulation
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