Deck 1: Free CSC

Question 1

A patient was planning to undergo Mitral valve replacement surgery. He was on warfarin therapy for Atrial Fibrillation. What modification should the nurse do with the anticoagulant medication?

A)Stop warfarin on the day of surgery
B)Stop warfarin 4-5 days before surgery
C)Stop warfarin 4-5 days prior to surgery; admit and start on IV heparin; stop IV heparin 2-3 hours pre-op
D)Continue warfarin therapy

Answer 1

Stop warfarin 4-5 days prior to surgery; admit and start on IV heparin; stop IV heparin 2-3 hours pre-op

Question 2

A patient presents with acute Arterial Occlusion of one of his upper limbs. Which of the following drugs should the nurse prepare to administer to the patient?

A)Streptokinase
B)Heparin
C)Warfarin
D)Urokinase

Answer 2

Heparin

Question 3

What are the contraindications of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the lower extremity?

A)Hypertensive patients of poor ventricular function
B)Patients having dyslipidemia
C)Medically unstable, diabetic patient, long arterial occlusion, poor distal run off
D)Patient who has undergone coronary angioplasty

Answer 3

Medically unstable, diabetic patient, long arterial occlusion, poor distal run off

Question 4

Which of the following signs and symptoms would the attending nurse expect to see in a patient of aneurysmal rupture?

A)Pain abdomen, hypertension, bradycardia
B)Hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, chest pain/lower back/abdominal pain
C)Headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo
D)Hypertension, chest pain, syncope

Question 5

The nurse receives the blood test reports for a patient who was admitted to hospital with complaints of chest pain. The report shows an elevated level of CKMB. What does this report signify in this patient?

A)Damage to myocardium
B)Damage to intercostals muscles
C)Liver damage
D)None

Question 6

Which systemic complications are associated with peripheral thromobolectomy?

A)Vessel vasospasm, hematoma formation, compartment syndrome
B)Renal failure, rhabdomyolysis, vessel vasospasm, hemorrhage
C)Edema, hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmia, renal failure, rhabdomyolysis
D)All of the above

Question 7

A male smoker presents with pain in his extremities after exercise. He also complains of color changes in his digits when exposed to cold. Which of the following diseases need to be ruled out before considering a diagnosis of Buerger's disease?

A)Systemic lupus erythematosus, diabetes, hypercoagulable conditions, scleroderma
B)Bleeding disorders, dyslipidemia, systemic lupus erythematosus
C)Bleeding disorders, diabetes, hypertension, vasculitis
D)Hypercoagulable states, disorders of lipid metabolism, polyarteritis nodosa

Question 8

A patient is being released from hospital after improving from familial congestive heart failure. His son was anxious to know if the disease can be prevented by lifestyle modification or prophylactic medications. What advice should the attending nurse give him?

A)Avoid alcohol and smoking, maintain proper blood pressure, reduce salt and fluid intake, and maintain an active lifestyle
B)Treatment of co-morbidities is sufficient to prevent progression of disease
C)Avoiding alcohol and smoking and diet containing low sodium and fat are enough
D)Nothing needs to be done except for maintaining an active lifestyle

Question 9

An adolescent boy presents with complaints of chest pain which increases on coughing and deep breathing. During auscultation, the nurse finds that heart sounds are muffled. What is the most likely cause of his condition?

A)Dressler syndrome
B)Aortic dissection
C)Myocardial infarction
D)Viral infection

Question 10

Which of the following set of diseases is associated with valvular heart disease?

A)Systemic lupus erythematosus, syphilis, Marfan syndrome, carcinoid syndrome
B)Amyloidosis, Tuberculosis, Sjogren syndrome
C)Ankylosing spondylitis, Leprosy
D)Rheumatic fever, collagen vascular disease

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not true regarding cardiac arrhythmias?

A)Arrhythmia can cause a slowing, speeding up, or irregular heartbeat
B)Supraventricular arrhythmias, ventricular arrhythmias, and bradyarrhythmias
C)Supraventricular arrhythmias originate in the atria
D)Sick sinus syndrome does not cause any arrhythmia

Question 12

Choose the statement below which correctly defines intermittent claudication.

A)The condition is defined as muscle cramp during physical activity which resolves once activity is stopped
B)Intermittent claudication arises from occlusion of peripheral arteries
C)It consists of muscle cramps during night which is severe enough to awake the patient
D)It consists of joint pain which resolves when the patient starts walking

Question 13

A patient of peripheral arterial disease is being released from hospital. What advice should be given by the nurse about foot care?

A)Wash and moisturize feet daily; wear thick socks and comfortable shoes
B)Clean the foot by rubbing with pumice stone
C)Clean feet using soft scrubber and keep dry
D)Clean feet and regularly walk barefoot in morning

Question 14

A patient presents with complaints of dizziness and lightheadedness and history of one episode of syncope. The nurse record his pulse rate as 40/minute and blood pressure as 90/70 mm Hg. His EKG findings are suggestive of second-degree type II AV block. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

A)Increase the heart rate
B)Restore sinus rhythm and maintain cardiac output
C)Increase blood pressure
D)Improve blood supply to vital organs

Question 15

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?

A)Cardiac arrhythmia, carcinoid syndrome
B)Cardiogenic shock, postprandial hypertension
C)Hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia
D)Hypertension, pheochromocytoma

Question 16

Which of the following investigations is useful in differentiating intermittent claudication due to arterial disease and neurogenic claudication?

A)Real-time Duplex scanning
B)Doppler flow studies
C)Digital subtraction angiography scan
D)All of above

Question 17

Which of the following descriptions is correct according to the 5-position code of pacemakers?

A)Position one (I) - chambers being sensed, Position two (II) - chambers being paced, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct
B)Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - only for tachycardia funct
C)Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - for defibrillation function, Position five (V) - only for rate modulation
D)Position one (I) - chambers being paced, Position two (II) - chambers being sensed, Position three (III) - device's response to sensing, Position four (IV) - programmability and rate of modulation function, Position five (V) - for defibrillation functio

Question 18

Which of the following classes of drugs constitute the vasodilator group of drugs?

A)Beta-blockers, nitrates, calcium channel blockers
B)Beta-blockers, sympthomimetic drugs, diuretics
C)Beta-agonist, cardiac glycoside, steroids
D)Beta agonist, adrenaline, isoproterenol

Question 19

Which of the following non-pharmacologic techniques is not used for treatment of maladaptive responses to coping?

A)Cognitive restructuring
B)Cognitive behavioral therapy
C)Electroconvulsive therapy and/or light therapy
D)Psychotherapy

Question 20

A patient is wearing Holter monitor. What instructions should the nurse give to follow during monitoring?

A)Stop all his regular medications
B)Maintain an activity diary of his physical activities
C)Restrict physical activity
D)Do strenuous exercise

Question 21

What is the normal polarity of a myocardial cell during the resting period, which causes the electrical potential in for the cell?

A)Positively charged
B)Negatively charged
C)Outside the cell membrane is negatively charged, inside is positively charged
D)Inside the cell membrane is negatively charged, outside is positively charged

Question 22

In what part of the heart do cardiac impulses originate?

A)SA node
B)AV node
C)Bundle of His
D)Left atrium

Question 23

What is the measurement provided by the PR interval on an EKG?

A)The time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the SA node
B)The time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the SA node
C)The time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the AV junction
D)The time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the AV junction

Question 24

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead EKG?

A)The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes
B)The difference in electrical potential between the left leg and right arm electrodes
C)The difference in electrical potential between the left arm and right arm electrodes
D)The electrical potential at one site relative to zero potential

Question 25

What is the Mason Likar modification?

A)An adjustment made during metabolic formula used to account for errors due to obesity
B)An alteration to the formula determining gross oxygen consumption for clients with asthma
C)A different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead EKG
D)A way to add resistance to certain exercises without physically increasing the weight of the dumbbell or apparatus

Question 26

What electrolyte abnormality causes an ST depression with prominent U waves and flattened T waves?

A)Hyperkalemia
B)Hypokalemia
C)Hypocalcemia
D)Hypercalcemia

Question 27

Which of the following is used to assess coronary artery calcium?

A)Electron beam computed tomography
B)Radionuclide ventriculography
C)Single photon emission computed tomography
D)Radionuclide scintigraphy

Question 28

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?

A)Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA)
B)Atherectomy
C)Laser Angioplasty
D)Coronary Artery Bypass Graft Surgery (CABGS)

Question 29

What is the test function of Holter EKG monitoring?

A)Monitors blood glucose level throughout the day
B)Radioactive dye is injected to show abnormalities in the EKG
C)Measures the vasodilation of the major vessels of the heart and shows them on the EKG
D)Tracks abnormalities on EKG as they occur throughout the day

Question 30

What is measured on an EKG by the horizontal squares?

A)Q wave
B)R wave
C)Duration
D)Voltage

Question 31

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?

A)Frequently hard to detect in a normal EKG
B)Suggests ischemia if inverted
C)Prominent peaks may indicate myocardial infarction or hyperkalemia
D)Is normally perfectly symmetrical

Question 32

Which leads on the EKG view the electrical activity of the heart on the horizontal plane?

A)Leads I through III
B)Bipolar leads
C)Augmented unipolar leads
D)Unipolar precordial leads

Question 33

What is the condition called when the SA node fails to depolarize the atria?

A)Sinus pause
B)Cardiac failure
C)Atrial flutter
D)Hypersensitization

Question 34

What is a Wenckebach AV block?

A)A delay in the conduction of the impulse through the AV junction
B)Increasingly difficult AV node conduction showing a P wave not followed by a QRS complex on EKG
C)A delayed AV conduction at the bundle braches
D)No conduction of impulse from the atria to the ventricles

Question 35

Which atrioventricular block does not impair cardiac function?

A)Hemiblock
B)First-degree block
C)Mobitz I block
D)Right bundle branch block

Question 36

What are some causes of a third-degree AV block?

A)Certain drugs, such as quinidine and atropine
B)Age, digitalis intoxication, or myocardial infarction
C)Heart disease and damage from uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
D)Hypertension, coronary artery disease, and cardiomyopathy

Question 37

In particular, which type of atrioventricular block patient would be a good candidate for the implantation of a pacemaker?

A)Hemiblocks
B)Transmural ischemic blocks
C)Posterior fascicular block
D)Third-degree block

Question 38

What condition may be indicated very early by an EKG with ST elevations, or tall, upright T waves?

A)Sudden cardiac death
B)Myocardial ischemia
C)Transmural myocardial infarction
D)Coronary artery disease

Question 39

Which electrolyte abnormality will show shortened ventricular repolarization and shortened QT intervals on EKG?

A)Hypercalcemia
B)Hypocalcemia
C)Hyperkalemia
D)Hypokalemia

Question 40

What does the horizontal aspect of the EKG measure?

A)Voltage
B)Duration
C)Watts
D)Waveforms