Deck 1: Data Collection

Question 1

The angle of Louis is an important landmark for all of the following except,

A)Counting ribs
B)Palpation of trachea
C)Ascending aorta ends at this level
D)Marking the upper limit of the base of the heart

Answer 1

Palpation of trachea

Question 2

Which nerve acts as an afferent for the cough reflex?

A)Trigeminal
B)Facial
C)Vagus
D)Glossopharyngeal

Answer 2

Vagus

Question 3

When a person is exercising, which of the following phases refers to the cardiovascular drift?

A)Preparation of cardiovascular system by neurological, humoral, and mechanical factors
B)Progressively less efficient delivery of oxygen and metabolite needs and increasing demands on the cardiovascular system
C)Rapid adaptation of cardiovascular system
D)Maintenance of equilibrium through cardiovascular adjustments

Answer 3

Progressively less efficient delivery of oxygen and metabolite needs and increasing demands on the cardiovascular system

Question 4

Which of the following structures can be responsible for rapid spread of lung infection?

A)Respiratory bronchiole
B)Pores of Kohn
C)Lambart canals
D)Both B and C
E)All the above

Question 5

Which parts /sides of the lung have the maximum perfusion?

A)Bases of the lung in an upright position
B)Apices of the lung in upright position
C)Right side lung in right side lying position
D)Both B and C
E)Both A and C

Question 6

Which option in the below explains the tympanic tone in mediate percussion?

A)Loud amplitude, low pitch, longer duration, heard over air filled organ
B)Low amplitude, medium to high pitch, short duration, heard over solid organs
C)Very low pitch, prolonged duration, heard over tissue with reduced density
D)High pitch, medium duration, heard over hollow structures

Question 7

Which part of chest wall excursion is measured if you place the palms distal to the nipple line with the thumbs meeting in the midline, and the fingers lying in the posterior axillary fold?

A)Lingula motion
B)Apical motion
C)Posterior motion
D)Lower lobe motion

Question 8

While assessing the voice sounds, which sign is helpful in identifying patchy areas of lung consolidation?

A)Egophony
B)Brochophony
C)Whispered pectoriloquy
D)None of the above

Question 9

According to the Winsor and Hyman functional grading system, what of the following is referred to as Grade III?

A)No functional limitation
B)Ambulatory less than 4 blocks before onset of claudication
C)Ambulatory at least 4 blocks before onset of claudication
D)Non-ambulatory due to ischemic pain at rest

Question 10

Of what use is the Stemmer's sign?

A)To detect deep vein thrombosis
B)To detect arterial insufficiency
C)To determine superficial vein valve competency
D)To clarify the presence of lymphedema

Question 11

Where does the maximum range of movement occur during respiration in women?

A)Upper thorax
B)Lower thorax
C)Abdominal
D)Both A and B

Question 12

Which factor increases the transdiaphragmatic pressure difference?

A)Small radius of diaphragm
B)Reduced intra-abdominal pressure
C)Increased abdominal muscle tension
D)Both A and C
E)All the above

Question 13

Which of the following is the bucket-handle movement?

A)Upward and forward motion of the upper ribs
B)Free motion of ribs 11 and 12
C)Forward and lateral motion of the intermediate ribs
D)Upward and lateral motion of the lower ribs

Question 14

If a patient describes pain as a burning, pressure-like, stinging, aching, what could possibly be the structure involved?

A)Muscle
B)Vasculature
C)Bone
D)Sympathetic nerve

Question 15

When you are examining an orthopedic injury patient, which one of the following principles is not followed?

A)Do the active movements first, followed by the passive movements
B)Do the resisted isometric movements in resting position
C)The involved side should be tested first
D)During the myotome testing, the contraction should be held for five seconds

Question 16

According to the Seddon classification of nerve injuries, what is the grade of injury if the patient has no pain, presents with muscle wasting, has complete loss of motor, sensory, and sympathetic functions which take months to recover after surgery?

A)Neuropraxia
B)Axonotmesis
C)Neurotmesis
D)Both A and B

Question 17

Which joint has the capsular pattern of lateral rotation, abduction and medial rotation?

A)The humeroulnar joint
B)The hip joint
C)The mid tarsal joint
D)The glenohumeral joint

Question 18

If the synovial fluid appears as a thick exudate and is brownish in color, it indicates the presence of which of the following?

A)Non inflammatory condition
B)Inflammatory arthritis
C)Septic arthritis
D)Tumors

Question 19

Which is the name of the test performed by tapping the plantar surface of the toes to detect the pyramidal tract lesion?

A)Chaddock's reflex test
B)Schaeffer's reflex test
C)Piotrowski's reflex test
D)Rossolimo's reflex test

Question 20

Which one of the following special tests needs to be performed before doing manipulation of the cervical spine?

A)Lhermitte's sign
B)Bakody's sign
C)Elvey test
D)Sharp - purser test

Question 21

If the patient complains of pain at the painful arc of the last 10 to 20 degrees of shoulder elevation, then which structure might be involved?

A)Glenohumeral
B)Acromioclavicular
C)Subacromial bursa
D)Supraspinatus insertion

Question 22

Which nerve is tested by straight leg rising with flexion, medial rotation of hip, extension at knee, plantar flexion of ankle and inversion of foot?

A)Sciatic nerve
B)Tibial nerve
C)Common peroneal nerve
D)Sural nerve

Question 23

Which one of the following conditions can be detected by the dancing patellar sign?

A)Swelling of the knee
B)Presence of plica
C)Patellofemoral dysfunction
D)Dislocation of patella

Question 24

What is the normal degree of toe-out angle for males?

A)1 degree
B)5 degrees
C)7 degrees
D)10 degrees

Question 25

Which one of the following phases in gait cycle needs isometric to eccentric contraction of the gluteus maximum muscle?

A)Foot flat to mid stance
B)Midstance to heel off
C)Heel off to toe off
D)Heel strike to foot flat

Question 26

What is the normal postural sway in the sagittal plane for an individual standing with about four inches between the feet?

A)12 degrees
B)14 degrees
C)16 degrees
D)20 degrees

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT the movement occurring during the supination twist?

A)Adduction of the head of talus
B)Inversion of calcaneus
C)Pronation at transverse tarsal joints
D)Pronation of the foot

Question 28

Which class of lever acts when the distal segment is fixed and the muscle acts on its proximal segment?

A)First class
B)Second class
C)Third class

Question 29

What is the fundamental structural unit of bone at the microscopic level?

A)Haversian system
B)Lamellae
C)Lacunae
D)Osteocyte

Question 30

What is the type of lubrication present on the articular cartilage in the joint surface?

A)Hydrodynamic lubrication
B)Squeeze film lubrication
C)Elastohydrodynamic lubrication
D)Boundary lubrication

Question 31

Type II collagens are primarily present in the following structures except,

A)Articular cartilage
B)Nasal septum
C)Meniscus
D)Inner inter vertebral disk

Question 32

Which of the following muscles are NOT supplied by the median nerve?

A)Abductor pollicisbrevis
B)Flexor pollicisbrevis
C)Opponenspollicis
D)Adductor pollicis

Question 33

Which joint is supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve?

A)Shoulder joint
B)First carpo metacarpal joint
C)Wrist joint
D)None of the above

Question 34

Which is the first bone to ossify in the body?

A)Scapula
B)Humerus
C)Clavicle
D)Radius

Question 35

In a closed kinematic chain of action, one of the following adjacent movements will not occur during an anterior pelvic tilt?

A)Change in the inclination of the iliosacral segment
B)Reduced lumbar lordotic curvature
C)Anterior displacement of the fifth lumbar vertebra
D)Stretched anterior longitudinal ligament

Question 36

Which of the following is the vertical steerer in the shoulder joint?

A)Supraspinatus
B)Gravity
C)Subscapularis
D)B and C
E)A and B

Question 37

What is the action of the dorsal interossei muscle on the third finger when the metacarpo phalangeal joint (MCP) is extended?

A)Metacarpo phalangeal abduction
B)Metacarpo phalangeal flexion
C)Metacarpo phalangeal abduction and interphalangeal extension
D)Metacarpo phalangeal flexion and interphalangeal extension

Question 38

What is the normal index of Install and Salviti for the patella femoral relation?

A)1 : 1
B)2 : 1
C)3 : 1
D)4 : 1

Question 39

Which one of the following conditions is assessed by holding two different colored pencils at some distance apart and asking the patient to count?

A)Visual field
B)Double vision
C)Color blindness

Question 40

Which of the following is not a feature of the upper motor neuron lesion?

A)Muscle groups will be affected
B)Paralysis of the voluntary movements
C)Extensor plantar response
D)Deep tendon reflex is lost

Question 41

Which cognitive disorder is examined by asking the patient to name the objects?

A)Nominal dysphasia
B)Dyslexia
C)Dysgraphia
D)Receptive dysphasia

Question 42

How would the pupils react to light when there is an occulomotor (III cranial) nerve palsy?

A)When showing light to the affected eye, there will not be any pupil reaction in both eyes
B)When the light is shown to the affected eye, contra lateral eye pupil constricts
C)When the light is shown to the normal eye, the pupil constricts on the same side
D)Both A and C
E)Both B and C

Question 43

When assessing the conscious level of the patient by using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), and the patient has spontaneous eye opening, confused verbal response, and localized motor response, what is the GCS score?

A)4
B)10
C)12
D)13

Question 44

What is graphesthesia?

A)Inability to recognize the objects placed in the hand
B)Inability to recognize the numbers or letters traced on the palm
C)Inability to discriminate two blunt points applied simultaneously
D)Inability to detect the pin prick or touch

Question 45

How do you check the verbal memory of a patient?

A)Ask the patient to repeat a sequence of 5 random numbers
B)Ask the patient to describe the present illness, duration of hospital stay
C)Ask the patient to talk about the events that happened 5 years before
D)Ask the patient to remember a short story after 15 minutes

Question 46

What reflex reaction does a baby display when placed in a supine position and the head drops backwards when presented with a stimuli of a loud noise?

A)Startle reflex
B)Landau reflex
C)Moro reflex
D)Flexor withdrawal

Question 47

When examining a child with meningomyelocele at L5 - S1 level, which motor function could be absent in the hip?

A)Flexion
B)Extension
C)Abduction
D)Adduction

Question 48

What is a midbrain tremor?

A)Tremor at rest
B)Tremor on maintaining posture
C)Tremor increased to maximal at the end of movement
D)Extremely severe tremor which throws off balance

Question 49

Which part of the skeletal muscle is involved in the stretch reflex mechanism?

A)Extrafusal fibers
B)Intrafusal fibers
C)Capsule
D)All of the above

Question 50

Which chromosomal gene defect is responsible for Friedrich's ataxia?

A)Chromosome 9
B)Chromosome 11
C)Chromosome 6

Question 51

What is the term use to describe the degeneration of motor neurons occurring at the level of the corticobulbar pathway?

A)Frontal dementia
B)Progressive bulbar palsy
C)Pseudo bulbar palsy
D)Primary lateral sclerosis

Question 52

What is battle's sign?

A)Bruise in orbital margin
B)Bruise under conjunctiva
C)Bleeding from the external auditory meatus
D)Bruise over mastoid

Question 53

Which is not a secondary brain damage in the following?

A)Intracranial hematoma
B)Diffuse axonal injury
C)Cerebellar swelling
D)Tonsillar herniation

Question 54

What is the function of paleocerebellum?

A)Maintenance of gait
B)Maintenance of balance
C)Maintenance of postural tone
D)Modulation of motor skills

Question 55

The mandibular division of the fifth (V) cranial nerve exists through the,

A)Foramen rotundum
B)Foramen spinosum
C)Foramen lacerum
D)Foramen ovale

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT the muscle of facial expression?

A)Mentalis
B)Temporalis
C)Epicranial
D)Zygomaticus major

Question 57

What is the interface between the epidermis and dermis called?

A)Stratum corneum
B)Rete peg
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum

Question 58

Where are the Merkel's disks situated?

A)Epidermis
B)Papillary dermis
C)Reticular dermis
D)Stratum spinosum

Question 59

How is the extent of a burn area calculated?

A)Rule of tens
B)Rule of six
C)Rule of nines
D)Rule of eights

Question 60

Which structure is responsible for attracting fibroblasts during the healing of the dermis?

A)Fibrin
B)Leukocytes
C)Macrophages
D)Collagen

Question 61

If the collagen production exceeds the breakdown, then what is the characteristic of a scar?

A)Pale
B)Flat
C)Firm
D)Pliable

Question 62

At which stage of dermal healing is stress usually applied to align the fibers?

A)Inflammatory phase
B)Proliferative phase
C)Maturation phase