Deck 4: Interventions

Question 1

Which one of the options below is NOT an outcome measure to assess the effectiveness of an airway clearance technique?

A)Wet / dry sputum volume
B)Chest X ray
C)Pulmonary function test
D)Shuttle test

Answer 1

Shuttle test

Question 2

What is the first step to be followed in combined physical decongestive therapy (CPDT) in the treatment of lymphedema?

A)Compressive bandages
B)Manual lymph drainage
C)Hygienic measures
D)Decongestive exercises

Answer 2

Manual lymph drainage

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an indication to prescribe head down position?

A)Dyspnea
B)Accessory muscle usage
C)Minute volume reduction
D)Respiratory muscle fatigue

Answer 3

Respiratory muscle fatigue

Question 4

A 40-year-old male is diagnosed with bronchiectasis. On auscultation, you hear the bilateral rhonchi on lower chest areas. Radiological investigation shows the presence of haziness in the lower posterior basal segments. How should you position him for postural drainage?

A)Prone lying, pillow under hips
B)Supine lying, pillow under back, knees bent, foot end of bed raise to 46 cm, chest tilt to 20 degrees
C)Prone lying, pillow under hips, foot end of bed raised to 18 inches, chest tilted to 20 degrees
D)Upright sitting, with slight leaning backward

Question 5

Which of the following techniques is based on the theory of equal pressure point (EPP)?

A)Diaphragmatic breathing
B)Forced expiratory technique
C)Thoracic expansion exercises
D)Manual hyperinflation

Question 6

Which one of the following indicates that a patient is performing ineffective huffing?

A)Mouth opened as 'O' shape
B)Hissing sounds
C)Contraction of abdominal muscle
D)Forced expiration

Question 7

Which ventilatory movement strategy combined with the exhalation is used to improve the functional outcome of a patient?

A)Pair with the trunk extension
B)Pair with the shoulder extension, adduction, and /or internal rotation
C)Pair with the shoulder flexion, abduction, and / or external rotation
D)Pair with the upward eye gaze

Question 8

A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She reports difficulty in breathing mainly during expiration. Her respiratory rate is 22 cycles / min. What would be your goal for treatment?

A)Instruct to use the accessory muscles
B)Facilitate relaxed diaphragmatic breathing
C)To teach pacing activity
D)Both B and C
E)Both A and C

Question 9

What type of respiratory muscle training is emphasized for inspiratory muscles?

A)Enhance inspiratory muscle endurance
B)Enhance inspiratory muscle strength
C)Both A and B

Question 10

A 5-year-old boy with cerebral palsy has weak abdominal obliques. What respiratory consequence can be expected?

A)Inadequate upper chest expansion
B)Abdominal breathing
C)Ineffective cough
D)Decreased structural reinforcement of posterior chest wall

Question 11

Which of the following forms of paradoxical breathing usually does not require mechanical ventilation?

A)Functioning diaphragm with paralyzed intercostals and abdominals
B)Paralyzed diaphragm with functional accessory muscle
C)Both A and B

Question 12

Which airway clearance technique has three phases of breathing?

A)Active cycle of breathing
B)Autogenic drainage
C)Percussion
D)Positive expiratory pressure

Question 13

What is apnea?

A)The patient's subjective feeling of shortness of breath
B)Cessation of respiration in the inspiratory position
C)Cessation of respiration in the resting expiratory position
D)Reduced alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic rate

Question 14

Which is not a contraindication for pneumatic compression treatment?

A)Cellulitis
B)Ischemia
C)Thrombophelebitis
D)Lymphedema

Question 15

A 33-year-old male has undergone a right-sided thoracoplasty. Which postural deformity might be expected?

A)Low right shoulder
B)High right hip
C)Side flexion towards the left
D)Side flexion towards the right

Question 16

What is the benefit of using the "timing for emphasis" technique?

A)Reduce the respiratory rate
B)Produce symmetrical chest wall movement
C)Facilitating accessory muscles
D)Mobilizing the thorax

Question 17

A 20-year-old male sustained a complete spinal cord injury at cervical level. The patient has very minimal trapezius, neck muscles, and sternocliedomastoid action. The patient is on assisted ventilation. Which of the following will be an appropriate breathing strategy for him?

A)Frog breathing
B)Butterfly technique
C)Pursed lip breathing
D)Counter rotation

Question 18

Which is NOT a goal of management in the treatment of bacterial pneumonia?

A)Reversing alveolar ventilation
B)Increasing ventilation perfusion mismatch
C)Minimizing the effect of mucociliary transport
D)Optimizing lymphatic drainage

Question 19

Which one of the following positive expiratory pressure (PEP) devices is very useful in treating children?

A)Thera PEP
B)Astrameditec
C)Flutter valve
D)Bubble PEP

Question 20

A 2-year-old toddler comes to clinic with croup. He has harsh barking cough, hoarse voice and fever. What is your goal of treatment?

A)To reduce cough
B)To clear airway
C)To improve breathing
D)None of the above

Question 21

What is the common indication to remove the intercostals drainage tubes?

A)10 - 20 ml /hr or less drainage
B)Container needs replacement
C)When determining the absence of pneumothorax on chest radiograph
D)When mobilizing the patient

Question 22

A 20-year-old pregnant woman presents with pain and numbness in the palmar surface of the hand in the median nerve distribution area. The pain is experienced more severely during the night but subsides temporarily after massaging the hand. In this case, which of the following is NOT a first line management?

A)Wrist splint
B)Activity modification
C)Surgical decompression of the median nerve
D)NSAIDs for controlling inflammation

Question 23

Which of the following exercises can be prescribed for osteoporosis?

A)Brisk walking
B)Rowing machine
C)Low impact aerobics
D)Both A and B
E)Both A and C

Question 24

Which type of aerobic exercise training involves a properly prescribed rest period?

A)Interval training
B)Continuous training
C)Circuit training
D)Circuit-interval training

Question 25

According to the Maitland graded oscillation techniques, what is Grade II?

A)Large-amplitude, rhythmic oscillations are performed up to the limit of the available range of motion and are stressed into the tissue resistance
B)Small-amplitude, rhythmic oscillations are performed up to the limit of the available range of motion and are stressed into the tissue resistance
C)Large-amplitude, rhythmic oscillations are performed within the range, not reaching the limit
D)Small-amplitude, rhythmic oscillations are performed at the beginning of the range of motion

Question 26

Which grade of Kalternborn's technique is used to maintain the available range of motion?

A)Grade I
B)Grade II
C)Grade III
D)Both A and B

Question 27

According to the daily adjustable progressive resistance exercise (DAPRE), what is the ideal count of repetitions in set 4?

A)3-4 repetitions
B)4-5 repetitions
C)2-3 repetitions
D)5-7 repetitions

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT an isotonic regimen?

A)DeLorme technique
B)Oxford technique
C)Plyometric training
D)Velocity spectrum rehabilitation

Question 29

What is the advantage of Isokinetic equipment?

A)It can provide maximum resistance at all point
B)Provides high speed and as well as low speed training
C)Exercise can be continued even after the patient fatigues
D)All of the above

Question 30

Which of the following statements is false regarding the closed kinematic chain exercises?

A)Distal segment is not free
B)Lunges is an example for closed chain kinematic exercise
C)Velocity is predetermined
D)Movements are functional

Question 31

Which zone in the hand is called Bunnell's "no-man's land"?

A)Zone 1
B)Zone 2
C)Zone 3
D)Zone 5

Question 32

What is the avulsion of flexor digitorum profundus called?

A)Jersey finger
B)Trigger finger
C)Mallet finger
D)Gamekeeper's thumb

Question 33

What is the most important finding during a physical examination that differentiates adhesive capsulitis from a rotator cuff problem?

A)Loss of active external rotation movement
B)Loss of passive external rotation movement
C)Pain in the shoulder
D)Inability to elevate the arm

Question 34

Which condition is most significantly associated with frozen shoulder?

A)Insulin dependent diabetes
B)Hypertension
C)Cervical spondylosis
D)Hyperthyroidism

Question 35

Which of the following factors will NOT delay the healing of the flexor tendon in the hand?

A)Heavy keloid formation
B)Zone 2 injury
C)Zone 3 injury
D)Zone 4 injury

Question 36

What is the degree of displacement indicative for operative treatment in Boxer's fracture?

A)Less than 40 degrees
B)More than 40 degrees
C)Less than 30 degrees
D)More than 20 degrees

Question 37

Which statement is NOT true about "valgus extension overload syndrome"?

A)Tenderness around the tip of the olecranon
B)Positive sign in "valgus extension snap maneuver"
C)Pain produced by wrist extension
D)Increased valgus laxity

Question 38

Which treatment should be avoided in the early rehabilitation phase after an ulnar collateral sprain?

A)Isometrics to wrist and elbow muscles
B)Icing
C)Strengthening of shoulder external rotation
D)Pain free active assisted range of motion exercises

Question 39

Which is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?

A)Supraspinatus
B)Subscapularis
C)Teres major
D)Infraspinatus

Question 40

Following a subscapularis repair, which movement should be avoided for at least 4 to 6 weeks?

A)Resisted external rotation of shoulder
B)Resisted abduction of shoulder
C)Resisted internal rotation of shoulder
D)All of the above

Question 41

Which statement is true about closed kinematic chain exercise when prescribed for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rehabilitation?

A)Places significant strain on the anterior cruciate ligament and patellofemoral joint
B)Generates low anterior shear force and tibial displacement
C)Generates more isolated muscle activity
D)Co-contraction of hamstrings and quadriceps do not occur

Question 42

A 28-year-old male had undergone an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. During rehabilitation, there is restriction in the range of movement, inflammation of peripatellar soft tissue, extensor lag and a positive "shelf sign". What could be a potential diagnosis?

A)Patella infera
B)Excessive lateral pressure syndrome
C)Patella alta
D)Global patella pressure syndrome

Question 43

At which degree of knee flexion does the iliotibial band cross the lateral femoral condyle?

A)10 degrees
B)20 degrees
C)40 degrees
D)30 degrees

Question 44

Which of the following should be avoided in an iliotibial band friction syndrome?

A)Use hard shoes
B)Avoid downhill running
C)Avoid running on the pitched surface
D)Rest till the symptoms subside

Question 45

What is a bipartite patella?

A)Failure in the fusion of the secondary ossification centers
B)Marginal fracture
C)Sleeve fracture
D)Transverse fracture

Question 46

What is a "windlass effect"?

A)Dorsiflexion of metatarsophalangeal results in increased arch height
B)Ability to use the extensor tendon to extend the interphalangeal joints with passively maintained metacarpophalangeal joint in flexion
C)Movement of the lever as a result of passive pull of the muscle

Question 47

What advice is given to a patient who has undergone a total hip replacement (THR)?

A)Avoid crossing the legs
B)Avoid turning the foot inward
C)Avoid low chairs
D)Avoid bringing the knee close to the chest
E)All of the above

Question 48

Which of the following conditions might be considered very risky for a total knee replacement (TKR) procedure?

A)Varus / valgus alignment in the X ray
B)Degenerative arthritis
C)Altered range of movement
D)Neuropathic arthropathy

Question 49

Which is a modifiable risk factor in the prevention of osteoporosis?

A)Gender
B)Age
C)Hormone level
D)Body size

Question 50

Which is NOT included in the "female athlete triad"?

A)Menstrual irregularity
B)Eating disorder
C)Premature osteoporosis
D)Stress fracture

Question 51

What is the primary sign of reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)?

A)Stiffness
B)Osteopenia
C)Trophic changes
D)Hyperhydrosis

Question 52

A 30-year-old female, presents with low back pain, pain at the hip, posterolateral thigh, over the knee, and medial aspect of the leg. There is also presence of numbness over the anteromedial thigh and knee. Weak knee extension along with atrophy of quadriceps is noticed during the physical examination. The knee jerk is also diminished. In this case, what could be the expected level of disc herniation?

A)L3 - L4
B)L4 - L5
C)L5 - S1

Question 53

Which of the following statements is true of the Berta Bobath technique?

A)Based on inhibiting abnormal reflex patterns and facilitating righting and equilibrium reaction
B)Based on enhancing the synergy patterns
C)Based on using the sensory stimulus to activate and inhibit a motor response

Question 54

According to the Brunnstorm's stages of recovery for upper extremity, what is Stage 3?

A)Flaccid, no voluntary movement can be initiated
B)Beginning of spasticity, presence of basic limb synergies
C)Movement deviates from synergy
D)Active initiation of synergies

Question 55

Which technique includes the 'quick icing' to facilitate muscles?

A)Vestibular stimulation technique
B)Proprioception stimulation technique
C)Exteroceptive stimulation technique

Question 56

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique is based on Sherrington's principle of successive induction?

A)Repeated contractions
B)Slow reversals
C)Rhythmic stabilization
D)Rhythmic initiation

Question 57

Of what use is Frenkel's exercise?

A)To treat imbalance
B)To correct posture
C)To treat incordination
D)To improve range of motion

Question 58

Which of the following is a derived position?

A)Hanging
B)Sitting
C)Half kneeling
D)Standing

Question 59

According to Fitts and Poster, what is the second phase of motor learning?

A)Cognitive phase
B)Autonomous phase
C)Associative phase

Question 60

In the motor development of a child, when is the antigravity neck flexion achieved?

A)3 months
B)4 months
C)5 months
D)6 months

Question 61

How will you position the upper extremity of a stroke patient?

A)Externally rotated shoulder, scapula protracted, elbow extended, forearm supinated, wrist extended, fingers extended, thumb abducted
B)Internally rotated shoulder, scapula protracted, elbow extended, forearm supinated, wrist extended, fingers extended, thumb abducted
C)Externally rotated shoulder, scapula retracted, elbow extended, forearm supinated, wrist extended, fingers extended, thumb abducted
D)Externally rotated shoulder, scapula protracted, elbow extended, forearm supinated, wrist extended, fingers extended, thumb adducted

Question 62

Which PNF technique is commonly used to increase stability?

A)Alternating isometrics and rhythmic stabilization
B)Alternating isometrics and slow reversals
C)Alternating isometrics and rhythmic initiation

Question 63

What is walking on a carpet an example of?

A)Open task
B)Closed task

Question 64

At what level of spinal cord injury is a patient able to propel a manual wheelchair independently?

A)C2
B)C3
C)C4
D)C6

Question 65

Which PNF pattern is used to give relaxation for a patient with Parkinson's disease?

A)Rhythmic initiation
B)D2flexion and D2 extension combined with inspiration
C)Hold relax
D)Both A and B
E)Contract relax

Question 66

For which of the following conditions are Brandt-Daroff exercises suggested?

A)Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Stroke
D)Cerebellar ataxia

Question 67

What is the normal percentage of cerebral blood flow?

A)50% of cardiac output
B)30% of cardiac output
C)17% of cardiac output
D)100% of cardiac output

Question 68

Thalamic sensory syndrome occurs in the,

A)Anterior cerebral artery
B)Middle cerebral artery
C)Internal carotid artery
D)Posterior cerebral artery

Question 69

What is the elicitation of extension and abduction of fingers by elevation of the hemiplegic upper extremity with elbow extended above horizontal called?

A)Souques phenomenon
B)Raimiste's phenomenon
C)Homolateral limb synkinesis

Question 70

Which one of the following options causes maceration?

A)Intense pressure on the skin for a short time
B)Skin rubs against the surface
C)Two layers of skin moving in opposite direction
D)Excess moisture

Question 71

What is the reaction of the eye in lateral gaze in the case of internuclear opthalmoplegia?

A)Incomplete eye adduction on affected side, nystagmaus of the opposite abducted eye
B)Abduction of the affected eye, nystagmaus of the opposite abducted eye
C)Abduction of the affected eye, incomplete adduction of opposite eye.

Question 72

According to the Hoehn and Yahr classification of disability, in which stage is there impaired righting reflex, unsteadiness, some activities are restricted but the patient can live independently?

A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV

Question 73

Which statement is NOT true about handling a patient with neurologic speech disorder?

A)Treatment should be given in a closed environment
B)Maintain a face to face communication
C)Continuously instruct while patient engaged in activity
D)Speak more slowly with simple language

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of basal ganglia lesion?

A)Bradykinesia
B)Rigidity
C)Dysarthria
D)Choreoathetosis

Question 75

Which test is NOT useful in testing for dysdiadochokinesia?

A)Finger to nose test
B)Pronation and supination test
C)Knee flexion and extension test
D)Pointing and past pointing test

Question 76

Daily self-care is an example of,

A)Physical function
B)Mental function
C)Affective function
D)Social function

Question 77

To which of the following does diaschisis refer?

A)Recovery of the brain activity after the resolution of temporary blocking factors
B)The ability of the brain to change and repair on its own
C)Underutilized areas of the brain can take over the function of damaged tissue
D)Backup system of the nervous system becomes operational when the primary system breaks down

Question 78

What type of sensory stimuli is used for patients with a low arousal state?

A)Low intensity
B)Low frequency
C)Phasic
D)Tonic

Question 79

What is the common deformity in the elbow following a burn?

A)Flexion
B)Flexion and pronation
C)Extension
D)Extension and pronation

Question 80

Which is NOT a goal of a positioning program for a burn patient?

A)Minimize edema
B)Prevent tissue destruction
C)Reduce the risk of infection
D)Maintain elongated state of soft tissue