Deck 2: Animal Care

Question 1

Which of the following terms is a pinpoint "mini bruise;" a red-purple spot seen on the skin or mucous membrane caused by blood vessel leakage?

A)Vesicular hemorrhage
B)A shiner
C)Anomaly
D)Petechia

Answer 1

Petechia

Question 2

If a horse requires a bandage that is distal to the carpus or tarsus, where would you apply this bandage?

A)Lower limb
B)Upper limb
C)Dock of the tail
D)The head

Answer 2

Lower limb

Question 3

Which condition is a primary infectious cause of nestling psittacine mortality, especially in mixed collections and open aviaries?

A)Avian polyomavirus
B)Avian cryptosporidium
C)Avian coccidioidomycosis
D)None of the above

Answer 3

Avian polyomavirus

Question 4

What is the proper term for describing a male ferret?

A)Hob
B)Jill
C)Drake
D)Jack

Question 5

What is the name of the disease caused by orthopoxvirus, which is only known to infect laboratory rabbits and not wild rabbits?

A)Myxomatosis
B)Viral Hemorrhagic Disease
C)Rabbit calicivirus
D)Rabbit pox

Question 6

Which of the following ingestive behaviors would be considered abnormal and possibly have a physiologic cause?

A)Pica
B)Gorging of food in multiple dog households
C)Food related aggression
D)Avoidance of certain food types

Question 7

Due to the sensitive nature of a horse's digestive tract, what clinical sign results from the obstruction of the flow of ingesta through the intestinal tract?

A)Colic
B)Volvulus
C)Rumen torsion
D)Iliatic stenosis

Question 8

According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, how often should veterinary hospitals update their safety plan?

A)Every six months
B)Annually
C)Only required when things change
D)Biannually

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of how the revised Needle stick Safety Prevention Act affects veterinary practices?

A)New "safer technology" must be used to reduce accidental needle sticks
B)Input from managerial healthcare workers is sought when selecting the types of needles
C)A sharps injury log is now required for workplaces with 11 or more employees
D)OSHA now mandates the use of a specific needle product

Question 10

Which of the following represents the role of a complete, accurate, and well-written patient medical record in a legal proceeding?

A)Evidence of professional incompetence
B)Providing unbiased review of the case
C)Evidence for a defense against negligence
D)Providing biased material that cannot be considered for judgment

Question 11

A patient with advanced liver disease will have mucous membrane color.

A)Cyanotic
B)Pale
C)Jaundice
D)Red

Question 12

What is the substance, produced by the kidneys, that stimulates the production of red blood cells from the bone marrow called?

A)Uric Acid Crystals
B)Convoluted Enzymes
C)Erythropoietin
D)Glomeruli

Question 13

Which of the following is a plasma protein, which is synthesized when cells are stimulated by antigens, thus providing antibodies?

A)Mitochondria
B)Denatured Plasma Organism
C)Gamma Globulins
D)Altruistic Proteins

Question 14

In mammals, which organ is the primary source of the enzyme Lipase?

A)Heart
B)Pancreas
C)Hypothalamus
D)Left lung lobe

Question 15

Of the three different blood types that cats possess, which one is generally the most common?

A)Type A
B)Type CB
C)Type AB
D)Type O negative

Question 16

What is the term that describes "the secretion of tears, especially when abnormal or excessive"?

A)Tearination
B)Eyelination
C)Lacrimation
D)Maturation

Question 17

What are the compounds that serve as the building blocks of cartilage, which covers the ends of bones within a joint?

A)Patellar Plane
B)Synovial Fluid
C)Cartilaginous B compounds
D)Glycosaminoglycans

Question 18

If a person were asked to describe the viscosity of a fluid, what trait would they be describing?

A)The thickness
B)The amount of particle debris
C)How quickly it evaporates at room temperature
D)How opaque the fluid is

Question 19

What is the conducting medium in between two nerves at the synapses, except at the postganglionic sympathetic fibers, where norepinephrine is the medium?

A)Acetylcholine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Parasympathetic ganglions
D)Atropine

Question 20

If a giant Schnauzer weighs 50 kilograms, what would the body surface area (in m2) be for this dog?

A)0)99 BSA (m2)
B)1)36 BSA (m2)
C)0)80 BSA (m2)
D)0)15 BSA (m2)

Question 21

Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) psittaci typically causes what condition in a cat?

A)Refractory feline conjunctivitis
B)Ocular Mycoses
C)Chlamydial Infructuous
D)Rickettsia Disease

Question 22

A five-year-old male orange tabby presents at a veterinary hospital with grey mucus membranes, tachycardia, and severe blood loss. What would be the best term to describe this cat's condition?

A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Distributive Shock
C)Hypovolemic Shock
D)Felinometic Shock

Question 23

Which of the following choices represents an example of a zoonotic disease?

A)Canine Parvovirus
B)Feline Infectious Peritonitis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Tetanus

Question 24

What evolutionary behavior do birds possess that make clinical diagnosis based on physical appearance difficult?

A)Predatory dominance behavior
B)Self-mutilating behavior
C)Reproductive drive behavior
D)Masking behavior

Question 25

When considering the role of nutrition in the disease process, what is a predisposing factor of Aspergillus fumigatus in pet birds?

A)Vitamin A deficiency
B)Vitamin D deficiency
C)Electrolyte deficiency
D)Calcium sufficiency

Question 26

"Coco" Cabana is a ten-year-old Moluccan Cockatoo that suffers from proventricular dilatation disease. What would be the cause of "Coco's" condition?

A)A bacteria that attacks specific optic nerve endings
B)A virus that attacks specific nerves of the digestive system
C)A fungus that attacks the endocrine system
D)A Neoplasia that attacks the urogenital system

Question 27

A bird's unique respiratory system is evolved for flight. What specialized anatomy do birds possess for ventilating their lungs?

A)Bronchial inclusions
B)Highly developed alveoli
C)Anterior and posterior air sacs
D)A permeable diaphragm

Question 28

What is the sound-producing vocal organ that birds possess, which enables some species to produce extremely complex vocalizations?

A)Apynix
B)Larynx
C)Syrinx
D)Hydinx

Question 29

What are the only vertebrate animals to have a fused collarbone?

A)Monkeys
B)Cats
C)Birds
D)Elephants

Question 30

In a bird, the vertebral column consists of vertebrae and is divided into three sections. What are these three sections called?

A)Cervical, Sacrolumbar, and Endosternum
B)Atlas, Cervical, and Sacrolumbar
C)Cervical, Synsacrum, and Pygostyle
D)Synsacrum, Cervical, and Endosternum

Question 31

On a bird, what is the superficial muscle that is responsible for lifting the wings between wing beats called?

A)Epitrochlearis
B)Teres Major
C)Palmaris Longus
D)Supracoracoideus

Question 32

Which condition is a primary infectious cause of nestling psittacine mortality, especially in mixed collections and open aviaries?

A)Avian Psittacine polyomavirus
B)Avian Psittacine cryptosporidium
C)Avian Psittacine coccidioidomycosis
D)Avian Psittacine halitosis

Question 33

Educating clients about pet bird nutrition is essential for preventing nutrition-related disease. In pet caged birds, why is a seed-based diet considered an inferior diet?

A)High levels of Vitamin A
B)Calcium: phosphorus imbalances and amino acid deficiencies
C)Selenium deficiencies
D)High levels of proteins

Question 34

What are the most common sites for administering intramuscular injections in a pet bird?

A)Palmaris Longus muscle
B)Teres Major and Supraspinatus muscles
C)Major pectoral and Iliotibialis muscles
D)Latissimus Dorsi muscle

Question 35

In addition to monitoring for infectious disease and environmental elements (housing, air quality, etc.), what else should a research facility's quality assurance program monitor for in a mice colony?

A)Body mass indexes
B)Predominate color patterns
C)Litter size
D)Genetic integrity

Question 36

If a laboratory is buying research animals from a Specific Pathogen Free (SPF) facility, what assurance does this provide them?

A)SPF animals are guaranteed to be completely disease free.
B)SPF animals are guaranteed to be disease resistant.
C)Assures that the stock is not infected with specific pathogens at the time of purchase
D)Assures that the stock is not infected with any pathogens at the time of purchase

Question 37

Hyperemia of the ventral skin that accompanies systemic infection in amphibians is also known as what syndrome?

A)Blue Tongue
B)Red Leg
C)Yellow Tail
D)Green Head

Question 38

In aquatic and larval amphibians, Saprolegniasis causes lethargy, respiratory distress, anorexia, weight loss, and sometimes skin ulcerations. What is Saprolegniasis?

A)A viral infection
B)A bacterial infection
C)A fungal infection
D)A genetic defect

Question 39

Ferrets commonly suffer from tumors that induce hypoglycemia. What is the correct name for these tumors?

A)Lipomas
B)Squamous cell carcinomas
C)Hemangiosarcomas
D)Insulinomas

Question 40

An un-spayed and un-bred female ferret is at risk for developing hyperestrogenism. From which gland or organ does this condition originate?

A)Ovary
B)Adrenal
C)Uterus
D)Thyroid

Question 41

At what age do female ferrets reach sexual maturity?

A)12-20 months
B)2-5 months
C)4-8 months
D)10-15 months

Question 42

With which of the following normal body functions would a South American camelid born with choanal atresia have difficulty?

A)Urinating
B)Defecating
C)Walking
D)Breathing

Question 43

What is the best method for restraining an ostrich for an examination or venipuncture?

A)Place a hood on them
B)Place a hobble on them
C)Secure them in cross ties
D)Ostrich cannot be manually restrained; chemical sedation is the only method

Question 44

If an ostrich requires intravenous catheterization, what would be the ideal site in which to place the catheter?

A)Jugular vein
B)Cutaneous ulnar vein
C)Medial metatarsal vein
D)Both B and C

Question 45

In a sugar glider, nutritional osteodystrophy is characterized by hind limb paralysis. What deficiency causes this condition?

A)Vitamin D
B)Vitamin E
C)Vitamin B-12
D)Vitamin C

Question 46

In exotic species, "capture myopathy" is a serious threat. What is the basic cause of this phenomenon?

A)An artificial habitat
B)The death of muscle tissue
C)Malabsorption
D)A misfiring of nerve synapse

Question 47

In the United States, the collection, transport, and exhibition of wild animals require compliance with of the following regulatory agencies?

A)The United States Department of Agriculture
B)The United States Fish and Wildlife Service
C)National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration
D)All of the above

Question 48

Captive wild animals can present a health risk to handlers. What notorious zoonotic risk are reptiles commonly a carrier of?

A)Streptococcus spp.
B)Pseudomonas spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Brucella spp.

Question 49

A handler can properly lift and restrain a rabbit by grasping which body part?

A)The scruff of the neck
B)The ears
C)The hind legs
D)The skin over the back area

Question 50

What is the normal gestation period for rabbits?

A)66 days
B)42-45 days
C)31-33 days
D)15-18 days

Question 51

A horse's ability to digest hay and other roughage is limited by the anatomy of their digestive tract. In addition to the large intestine, where does fermentation occur in horses?

A)Cecum
B)Large intestine
C)Stomach
D)Small intestine

Question 52

Assuming that a horse's daily requirement for water will change depending on multiple variables, what is the average daily intake requirement of water?

A)120 mL/kg
B)50 mL/kg
C)275 mL/kg
D)15 mL/kg

Question 53

Allowing for differences in breed and size, what is the ideal body condition score for a horse?

A)2 - 5
B)5 - 8
C)4 - 6
D)6 - 10

Question 54

Generally speaking, what affect does cold weather have on the estimated daily energy (DE) requirements of horses?

A)DE requirement increases as temperature increases.
B)DE requirement remains steady; temperature does not affect it.
C)DE requirement increases as temperature decreases.
D)DE requirement decreases as temperature decreases.

Question 55

For horses, which of the following choices represents feedstuff that is digested in the small intestine?

A)Alfalfa pellets
B)Fresh grasses
C)Hay
D)Corn

Question 56

If, for whatever reason, a foal is separated from the dam at birth, it must have colostrum administered in order to survive. How soon after birth should colostrum be administered to an orphan foal?

A)Within 36 hours
B)Within 72 hours
C)Within 48 hours
D)Within 24 hours

Question 57

In calves, White Muscle Disease is a nutritional disorder that causes a degeneration of the skeletal and heart muscles. What nutritional deficiency causes this disease?

A)Selenium
B)Calcium
C)Vitamin A
D)Vitamin B -12

Question 58

In beef cattle production, the practice of feeding a high grain diet in order to improve beef grade and fat quality in preparation for sale at market, is referred to as what?

A)Fattening
B)Finishing
C)Market Prepping
D)Forming

Question 59

Some snakes, such as King Cobras and garter snakes, primarily feed on other poikilotherm animals. What type of animal is a poikilotherm?

A)Warm-blooded
B)Invertebrate
C)Cold-blooded
D)Homothermic

Question 60

What disease will Clostridium perfringens type C and D cause in goats that are fed an abundance of high carbohydrate feed?

A)Tetanus
B)Enterotoxemia
C)Nitrate Poisoning
D)Copper toxicity

Question 61

Sally has examined a ten-year-old Cocker Spaniel and assessed a body condition score of five. Which of the following statements would represent this dog's physical condition?

A)Stout
B)Thin
C)Obese
D)Moderate

Question 62

Which one of the following best demonstrates the correct way to feed a gestating bitch?

A)Increase the volume or nutrient content of feed once conception is suspected
B)Increase the volume or nutrient content of feed after whelping
C)Increase the volume or nutrient content of feed during the last half of gestation
D)Increase the volume or nutrient content of feed during the last 1/3 of gestation

Question 63

When evaluating dog food labels, comparisons between different food types are made by converting dry food analysis to a dry matter basis. What is the general rule for performing this calculation for dry dog food?

A)When converting to a dry matter basis, add 10% to the listed value
B)When converting to a dry matter basis, add 25% to the listed value
C)When converting to a dry matter basis, subtract 10% to the listed value
D)When converting to a dry matter basis, subtract 25% to the listed value

Question 64

Which of the following statements demonstrates the effects of malnutrition as a contributor to secondary hypoparathyroidism in dogs?

A)Feeding commercial dog food with a poor quality protein can cause hypercalcemia.
B)Feeding a predominantly meat diet can cause hypocalcemia.
C)Feeding an adult dog "puppy milk replacer" can cause hypocalcemia.
D)Feeding an adult dog cat food can induce hypercalcemia.

Question 65

What is the daily protein requirement of a healthy adult dog?

A)120 g of highly digestible protein per kg body wt/day
B)18 g of highly digestible protein per kg body wt/day
C)2 g of highly digestible protein per kg body wt/day
D)50g of highly digestible protein per kg body wt/day

Question 66

For nutritional purposes, which statement most closely defines the function of measurable energy (in calories) for different foods?

A)The portion of the partial energy of a diet that is derived from animal proteins
B)The portion of the partial energy of a diet that is consumed
C)The portion of the total energy of a diet that is expended from the body
D)The portion of the total energy of a diet that is retained within the body

Question 67

Which of the following statements is true regarding dietary fat?

A)It yields 2.25 times the measurable energy than a soluble carbohydrate or proteins.
B)The addition of dietary fat always results in hypercholesterolemia.
C)Dietary fat is not a significant source of energy.
D)It is always beneficial for animals that have liver disease.

Question 68

Which of the following statements represents an unsaturated essential fatty acid found in corn and soy?

A)Lactic acid
B)Linoleic acid
C)Nicotinic acid
D)Uric acid

Question 69

Cats require a rich source of vitamin A in their diet, such as liver, fish liver oils, or synthetic supplementation. What is the reason for this?

A)Cats are genetically predisposed to be deficient in Vitamin A.
B)Cats require much higher levels of Vitamin A than other mammals.
C)Cats lack intestinal carotenase required to convert B-carotene into Vitamin A.
D)Cats lack the ability to digest and metabolize Vitamin A efficiently.

Question 70

"Cyrano" is an anorexic cat that must be fed a liquid diet via a nasal gastric tube. How many Kcal/kg per day would "Cyrano" require?

A)600 kcal/kg of body weight per day
B)160 kcal/kg of body weight per day
C)240 kcal /kg of body weight per day
D)40 kcal/kg of body weight per day

Question 71

Which of the following reflects the nutritional objective for a patient suffering from Congestive Heart Failure?

A)Reduce water retention
B)Promote diuresis
C)Reduce sodium intake to below 400 mg / 100 g of diet dry matter
D)All of the above

Question 72

Which of the following is the correct method for calculating how much food an obese dog should consume when beginning a weight loss program?

A)Enough food is provided to meet 60% of the dog's ideal body weight
B)A low calorie diet is offered and the frequency of feedings are reduced by 50%
C)Enough food is provided to meet 40% of the dog's current body weight
D)A high fiber diet is offered and the frequency of feedings is reduced 20%

Question 73

Kittens that are fed large quantities of unsaturated fatty acids, such as mackerel or tuna packed in oil, can suffer from pansteatitis (yellow fat disease). What antioxidant is used to combat this condition?

A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin E
C)Vitamin D3
D)Vitamin B-12

Question 74

Which of the following is the correct term for the (white body) white fibrous scar tissue present on an ovary that results from luteolysis?

A)Primordial follicle
B)Corpus Albicans
C)Vesicular follicle
D)Corpus Luteum

Question 75

Which of the following choices states what type of uterus is found in a mare?

A)Bipartite
B)Bicornuate
C)Duplex
D)Simplex

Question 76

Of the three primary types of livestock digestive systems, how many stomachs does a Pseudo-ruminant possess?

A)Two
B)Four
C)Three
D)One

Question 77

What part of the ulna articulates with the humerus?

A)Deltoid tuberosity
B)Ulnar Cotyloid
C)Semilunar notch
D)Tibial crest

Question 78

Which of the following best illustrates the common name for the olecranon?

A)Elbow
B)Arm
C)Shoulder
D)Wrist

Question 79

John's dog has a fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side is only bent. What type of fracture does John's dog have?

A)Comminuted
B)Greenstick
C)Compound
D)Epiphyseal

Question 80

What condition occurs when a patient has a high level of CO2 in their blood?

A)Respiratory alkalosis
B)Metabolic alkalosis
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Metabolic acidosis