Deck 6: Pharmacology

Question 1

When discussing drug interactions, what is the term used to describe a drug that mimics a natural body substance or normal function when interacting with a receptor?

A)Antagonist
B)Agonist
C)Annoyance
D)Additionist

Answer 1

Agonist

Question 2

When discussing drug interactions, what is the term used to describe a drug that blocks a natural body substance or normal function without producing any physiological effect?

A)Antagonist
B)Agonist
C)Annoyance
D)Additionist

Answer 2

Antagonist

Question 3

In which organ does the detoxification of drugs and toxins normally occur?

A)Kidney
B)Small intestine
C)Pancreas
D)Liver

Answer 3

Liver

Question 4

The excretion of drugs can occur in the .

A)Bowel
B)Lungs
C)Kidneys
D)All of the above

Question 5

What is the concern when administering injectable medications intramuscularly?

A)Injection into a blood vessel
B)Injection into a nerve fiber
C)There are no concerns using this method.
D)A and B

Question 6

The injection of caustic drugs perivascularly is a risk associated with:

A)Subcutaneous injection
B)Intramuscular injection
C)Intravenous injection
D)Oral lavage

Question 7

A cholinergic agent is one that:

A)Blocks acetylcholine effects
B)Treats the colon
C)Mimics stimulatory acetylcholine effects
D)None of the above

Question 8

When calculating dosages, each patient should be dosed to .

A)Effect
B)Highest recommended amount
C)Lowest recommended amount
D)Until the problem goes away

Question 9

Into what form(s) can a drug solution be formulated?

A)Syrup
B)Elixir
C)Tincture
D)All of the above

Question 10

Which is the amount of drug given per unit of body weight?

A)Dose
B)Dosage
C)Strength
D)None of the above

Question 11

Convert a 45 pound dog's weight into kilograms.

A)45kg
B)150kg
C)20kg
D)90kg

Question 12

What is the term for drugs that kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms?

A)Antimicrobials
B)Antiketogenic
C)Anti-infective
D)Antiamoebic

Question 13

Sally has used the following anesthetic plan for a feline orchiectomy: acepromazine, glycopyrrolate, and ketamine. Her patient is suffering from catalepsy following induction. Which medication(s) caused this condition?

A)Glycopyrrolate
B)Ketamine
C)Acepromazine
D)All of the above

Question 14

Sally is preparing to induce a patient using the drug propofol. She has a patent intravenous catheter placed in the right cephalic vein and she has checked her anesthesia machine and endotracheal tube for leaks. What is her initial concern when administering propofol?

A)Excitability
B)Bradycardia
C)Apnea
D)Catalepsy

Question 15

In order for a patient to benefit from drug therapy, the body must absorb the medication. What are the primary routes of drug absorption?

A)GI tract, topical, tracheobronchial surfaces, and alveoli
B)Across cellular membranes, GI tract, topical, tracheobronchial surfaces and alveoli, parenteral
C)GI tract, and topical only
D)Across cellular membranes, GI tract, topical, tracheobronchial surfaces, and alveoli

Question 16

How does bioavailability relate significantly to drugs administered by mouth and absorbed through the GI tract?

A)It has the ability to induce emesis in patients.
B)It reduces the potential side effects of any given drug.
C)Intestinal epithelial cells and the liver can reduce the amount of unchanged drug that enters the circulation system.
D)None of the above

Question 17

Toxicity can occur from drugs that require elimination through urinary excrement in patients with which of the following conditions?

A)Congestive Heart Failure
B)Certain Musculoskeletal conditions
C)Renal Failure
D)Asperger's Syndrome

Question 18

If a medication is administered to an unhealthy patient whose drug clearance ability is reduced by 50%, what effect will this have on the half-life of the drug?

A)The half-life will decrease by half.
B)The half-life will remain the same.
C)The half-life will double.
D)It will decrease the amount of drug circulating in the blood plasma by 50%.

Question 19

What type of drugs, when given by mouth, will interfere with the GI absorption of concurrently administered drugs such as digoxin or tetracycline?

A)Cephalosporin
B)S-Adenosylmethionine
C)Antacids
D)Both A and B

Question 20

If a patient is prescribed 12.5 mg of furosemide PO, b.i.d., and the available strength of the tablet is 50 mg, how many tablets would you administer?

A)3/4 of a tablet
B)1/4 of a tablet
C)1/2 of a tablet
D)1 tablet

Question 21

Assume that you are required to give a patient 100 mg of theophylline elixir. The strength of the elixir is 27 mg per 5 mL. How many mL would you give to this patient?

A)2)1 mL
B)5)4 mL
C)135 mL
D)18.5 mL

Question 22

Which of the following drugs is an arteriolar vasodilator, which is sometimes used to treat patients with congestive heart failure due to chronic mitral regurgitation?

A)Dopamine
B)Oxymetholone
C)Heparin
D)Hydralazine

Question 23

What type of drug is commonly used in patients with chronic congestive heart failure, prevents vasoconstriction, results in decreased vascular resistance and cardiac filling pressure, and increases cardiac output and exercise tolerance?

A)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
B)?-Adrenergic Agonists
C)Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors
D)Cardiac Glycosides

Question 24

Which of the following drugs are an example of a Class I antiarrhythmic medication?

A)Amiodarone
B)Propranolol
C)Lidocaine
D)Diltiazem

Question 25

Which of the following statements regarding Digitalis is stated incorrectly?

A)It is used for restoring adequate circulation in animals with congestive heart failure.
B)It is a cardiac glycoside.
C)The calculated dose should be multiplied by 0.75 for elixirs.
D)Dosages should be increased in obese patients.

Question 26

Doberman has ordered a heparin infusion of 1000 units/hour for an 80-pound springer spaniel. The infusion is to be mixed as 25,000 units in 1000 mL .9% NaCl. How many mL per hour would this patient receive?

A)25 mL
B)40 mL
C)4 mL
D)200 mL

Question 27

Chow has ordered an intravenous injection of 25 mg of Dexamethasone for a 25 pound mixed-breed dog. If the concentration of the Dexamethasone is 2 mg/mL, how many mLs will this dog need?

A)17.5 mL
B)72.5 mL
C)12.5 mL
D)25 mL

Question 28

How many milligrams of epinephrine are in 5cc of a 1:10,000 solution?

A)5
B)50
C)500
D)0)5

Question 29

How many milliliters are in 2.75 liters of any given liquid?

A)20,750
B)2,750
C)275
D)725

Question 30

Which of the following best illustrates the desired effect of an anticholinergic drug?

A)To induce emesis
B)To induce an anesthetic state
C)To control vomiting
D)To control coughing

Question 31

If a packet of Panacur contains 1 gram of Fenbendazole Granules 22.2%, and the recommended dosage is 50 mg/kg, how many packets would a 50-pound dog need?

A)5 packets
B)10 packets
C)1 packet
D)15 packets

Question 32

If an animal requires one 1/4-gr tablet of Phenobarbital twice daily, what is the total number of milligrams per day that this animal needs?

A)16.2 mg
B)32.4 mg
C)64.8 mg
D)129.6 mg

Question 33

A reproductive hormone, extracted from animal pituitary glands, is used commonly as a medication to stimulate follicular growth and estrogen production in the female and spermatogenesis in the male. It is also used induce superovulation in several animal species. What is this hormone called?

A)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
C)Human chorionic gonadotropin
D)Progesterone

Question 34

What are the drugs of choice for Feline and Canine Rickettsial Infections?

A)Cephalosporins
B)Sulfa based drugs
C)Tetracyclines
D)Enrofloxin

Question 35

Which antibacterial agent is prohibited for therapeutic use in food-producing animals?

A)Chloramphenicol
B)Enrofloxacin
C)Cefadroxil
D)Gentamicin

Question 36

Which of the following pairs of chemicals will, if combined, create a highly toxic chloramine gas that can cause acute respiratory distress?

A)Liquid dish soap and simple green
B)Bleach and ammonia
C)Pine sol and lime scale remover
D)Boric acid and vinegar

Question 37

When does a chemical or drug subject to OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (Title 29, Code of Federal Regulations, Section 1910.1200) require labeling standards and material data safety sheets to be kept?

A)All chemicals and drugs must be included
B)If it contains more than 1% of any ingredient known to be hazardous
C)Only chemicals are subjected; drugs are exempt
D)Any pharmaceutical in the liquid form is exempt

Question 38

In the case of a practice that utilizes chemotherapeutic drugs, what role does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) have in ensuring employee safety?

A)OSHA does not regulate or establish guidelines for chemotherapeutic agents or workers
B)OSHA regulates the types of cytotoxic drugs that can be handled by staff
C)OSHA regulates the storage and dispensing rules for cytotoxic drugs
D)OSHA has no official regulations, but has established a set of guidelines for workers

Question 39

The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) enforces federal laws and class assignments for controlled substances. What criteria are used in determining which classification a drug will receive?

A)The chemical class
B)The potential for abuse
C)The effect on body systems
D)The route of administration

Question 40

If you were required to administer a one-liter bag of lactated Ringers solution to an animal over a four-hour period, using an IV tubing with a calibration of 10, how many drops per minute would this patient receive?

A)100 gtt/min
B)42 gtt/min
C)400 gtt / min
D)22 gtt/min

Question 41

When considering fluid therapy, what type of fluid is most like plasma in the way of electrolyte content, pH, and osmolality?

A)Lactated Ringers
B)Hypertonic saline
C)isotonic saline (0.9%)
D)Dextran

Question 42

If a 75-pound animal is placed on fluid therapy that requires a maintenance rate of 60 mL/kg/day, what is the total daily volume of fluid (in mL) that this animal will receive?

A)4,500 mL
B)2,045 mL
C)94 mL
D)135 mL

Question 43

A patient requires 500mL of Lactated Ringers solution to be infused over 8 hours using IV tubing with a calibration of 15. What is the hourly rate?

A)240 mL/hr
B)266 mL/hr
C)62.5 mL/hr
D)160 mL/hr

Question 44

Bark more has asked you to administer 250 mL Normal Saline infused over 4 hours, using IV tubing with a calibration of 60. What is the hourly rate?

A)366 mL/hr
B)249 mL/hr
C)180 mL/hr
D)62.5 mL/hr

Question 45

Sammy, a fifteen-pound Siamese cat, needs 750 mL of 5% Dextrose to be infused over 8 hours. The administration set is 60 gtt/mL. What is the IV flow rate in gtt/min?

A)480 gtt/min
B)48 gtt/min
C)75 gtt/min
D)94 gtt/min

Question 46

When considering the principles of fluid therapy for birds, how does their high metabolic rate affect the dosing and administration rate when compared to mammals?

A)Agents must be administered less frequently and at lower doses
B)Agents must be administered more frequently and at higher doses
C)Agents must be administered less frequently and at higher doses
D)Agents must be administered more frequently and at the same dose

Question 47

For preventative vaccination of exotic animal species, what type of vaccine is generally preferred?

A)Modified live viral strains or inactivated viral or bacterial strains
B)Modified live viral strains
C)Any type of vaccine that is used on domestic animals
D)Inactivated viral or bacterial strains

Question 48

Which of the following statements reflects the basic principles of using drug therapy as a treatment for behavioral disorders?

A)To avoid behavioral issues by sedation during periods of stress
B)A stand-alone pharmaceutical solution to correct behavioral issues
C)Facile use designed to solve behavioral disorders
D)A complementary therapy for treating disorders combined with modification techniques

Question 49

When instituting drug use for behavioral disorder therapy, what is an important consideration that should be communicated to pet owners before beginning a drug regimen?

A)An explanation of how the drug will modify behavior
B)Social implications of drug therapy
C)The specific mechanism of action that each drug uses
D)An assurance that the chosen drug will be curative

Question 50

Because most medications used for treating behavioral disorders constitute off-label use, what safety measures should be implemented to avoid adverse reactions in a patient?

A)Regular behavioral evaluations
B)Baseline blood work and periodic monitoring
C)A signed consent for use
D)A thorough radiologic examination

Question 51

When treating an animal that has ingested a poisonous substance, when is emesis likely to be the most beneficial?

A)Within a few hours of ingestion
B)Within twenty-four hours of ingestion
C)When the animal has ingested a corrosive substance
D)When an animal has ingested petroleum distillates

Question 52

Which of the following symptoms most commonly accompanies arsenic poisoning?

A)Hemorrhage that begins in the nose and progresses to internal organs
B)A pronounced head tilt
C)Convulsions triggered by sudden noise
D)Watery diarrhea that may be tinged with blood

Question 53

Although copper poisoning can occur in any species, in which of the following animals is this condition commonly seen?

A)Sheep
B)Dogs
C)Cats
D)Lizards

Question 54

Ethylene glycol (EG) toxicity is a usual occurrence in dogs and cats. Which common household item is a major contributor to ethylene glycol (EG) toxicity?

A)Degreaser
B)Radiator antifreeze
C)Air freshener
D)Toilet bowl cleaner

Question 55

Which of the following conditions is the primary reason for death in animals that have ingested ethylene glycol?

A)Destruction of brain cells
B)Destruction of intestinal lining
C)Destruction of bone marrow
D)Destruction of renal tubular cells

Question 56

All parts of the avocado(leaves, fruit, and pits) are known to be toxic to animals. Which of the following compounds is the toxic ingredient in avocados?

A)Persin
B)Sulfoxide
C)Disulfide
D)Theobromine

Question 57

In addition to myocardial insufficiency, what other condition is commonly observed in an animal with avocado toxicity?

A)Neoplasia
B)Mastitis
C)Anemia
D)Thiamine deficiency

Question 58

Which of the following two compounds are responsible for the clinical syndrome seen in chocolate toxicosis?

A)Mastitis
B)Diabetes mellitus
C)Theobromine and caffeine
D)Anemia

Question 59

Which of the following human foods will, if consumed in sufficient quantities, elicit renal failure in household pets?

A)Persimmons
B)Hops
C)Coffee
D)Raisins

Question 60

In a dog, profuse, frothy salivation, accompanied by vigorous head shaking, pawing at the mouth, and retching is a symptom of poisoning from which of the following species?

A)Rattlesnake
B)Black Widow
C)Toad
D)Scorpion

Question 61

Sorghum poisoning occurs in horses that are grazed on which of the following grasses?

A)Lespedeza
B)Bermuda
C)Fescue
D)Sudan

Question 62

Marijuana is a schedule I controlled substance mostly used by people as a recreational drug. Which of the following would be a common sign of toxicosis in a pet that consumes marijuana?

A)Bradycardia
B)Nervousness
C)Hyperactivity
D)Tachycardia

Question 63

When considering preventative vaccination of a puppy, why are vaccines generally not given until after six weeks of age?

A)Due to weakened immune system, allergic reaction is likely
B)Immunoglobulins found in colostral antibodies block the vaccine
C)Vaccines are not labeled for use in puppies less than six weeks old
D)The preservatives found in vaccines may cause growth abnormalities if given early

Question 64

In puppies under six weeks of age, which vaccine can be used to block the effects of colostral antibodies and provide protection against canine distemper?

A)Parvo
B)Parainfluenza
C)Adenovirus
D)Measles

Question 65

Which of the following represents a "core" vaccine for a dog?

A)Distemper
B)Bordetella
C)Lyme
D)Giardia

Question 66

Which of the following canine vaccines is included in the American Animal Hospital Association and the American Veterinary Medical Association's list of "not recommended" vaccines?

A)Bordetella
B)Canine coronavirus
C)All leptospirosis strains
D)Distemper - Measles

Question 67

Which vaccine was removed from the recommendation list after studies indicated that it caused visual impairment in vaccinated dogs?

A)Giardia
B)Leptospirosis
C)Adenovirus-1
D)Distemper-Measles

Question 68

Which of the following statement is true regarding giardia vaccine?

A)It is normally administer triennially.
B)It can cause sarcomas in vaccinated dogs.
C)It is highly effective in preventing infection.
D)It has never been proven to prevent infection.

Question 69

Which of the following non-core vaccines is known to cause clinical signs of infection when inadvertently inoculated into the conjunctiva?

A)Panleukopenia
B)Feline Herpesvirus
C)Bordetella bronchiseptica
D)Chlamydophila felis

Question 70

At what age is it appropriate to initiate Feline Leukemia virus vaccinations in a kitten?

A)8-12 weeks
B)6-12 weeks
C)4-6 weeks
D)12-14 weeks

Question 71

In general, which type of vaccine is preferred for pregnant cats for protection against Panleukopenia Virus (FPV) /Feline Herpesvirus-1 and Feline Calicivirus (FHV-1/FCV)?

A)Modified live
B)Killed
C)Intra nasal
D)Non-adjuvanted

Question 72

Which of the following equine vaccines was developed for use exclusively in breeding stallions, stud colts intended for breeding, and seronegative open mares?

A)Rotavirus A
B)EHV-1 and EHV-4
C)Equine viral arteritis
D)Botulism

Question 73

Which of the following statements reflects the principles of equine vaccination?

A)Each horse in a population is protected to an equal degree following vaccination.
B)A properly administered, licensed product will provide complete protection during epidemics
C)Vaccination alone, in the absence of good management practices, is sufficient for the prevention of infectious disease.
D)Vaccination minimizes the risks of infection, but cannot prevent disease in all circumstances.

Question 74

Which of the following equine vaccines meet the American Veterinary Medical Association's (AVMA) standard for "core" vaccine requirements?

A)West Nile Virus
B)Potomac horse fever
C)Sarcocystis Neurona
D)Botulism

Question 75

Which of the following is a reason that vaccination against Venezuelan equine encephalitis in horses is controversial?

A)Data have demonstrated that vaccination with EEE/WEE provides no protection against VEE
B)Vaccination against a foreign animal disease may confound testing in the event of an outbreak
C)Vaccination of horses with killed VEE vaccine should never be performed in high-risk areas
D)Epidemics of VEE due to vaccination develops greater virulence in avian and mammalian hosts

Question 76

The cost of inventory in a veterinary hospital is calculated by the actual item cost, plus specific hidden costs. Which of the following is a hidden cost of inventory that is frequently overlooked by veterinary hospitals?

A)Sales tax
B)Holding costs
C)Shipping costs
D)Vendor price increases

Question 77

If inventory control and management is to be effective, defined goals must be established. Which of the following is a goal of inventory control and management?

A)Medication and supplies are ordered when existing stock is depleted
B)Prescriptions are called in three days in advance to allow for ordering and delivery
C)Fees are adjusted on a regular basis and price increases are passed along to the client
D)To order a large enough quantity at one time to ensure a distributor discount

Question 78

Which of the following breaches of the Veterinary-Client-Patient Relation (VCPR) is not only considered to be unethical, but is also a violation of federal law?

A)Failing to honor a client's request for a prescription in lieu of dispensing when a valid VCPR exists
B)Making medical recommendations of giving advice without a valid VCPR
C)Dispensing a prescription product without a valid VCPR
D)Failure to keep complete medical records in the presence of a valid VCPR

Question 79

Sally is about to premedicate a surgical patient with 0.011mg/kg of glycopyrrolate. What reason(s) do she and the veterinarian have for using this drug?

A)Increases heart rate
B)Dries secretions
C)Long duration of action
D)All of the above

Question 80

A patient is prescribed a medication with the instructions to apply it O.S. q.i.d. x 10 days. What does this mean?

A)Apply to the left ear, every six hours, for ten days.
B)Administer by mouth, every ten hours, for five days.
C)Apply to the left eye, four times daily, for ten days.
D)Apply to the right eye, every six hours, for ten days.