Deck 28: Skin Disorders

Question 1

Select only the skin disorders that could be contagious via skin or surface contact.

A) Café au lait spots
B) Tinea pedis
C) Folliculitis
D) Impetigo
E) Furuncle
F) Paronychia
G) Candidiasis
H) Herpes simplex
I) Verucca plantaris
J) Molloscum contagiosum
K) Urticaria

Answer 1

Tinea pedis
Impetigo
Furuncle
Herpes simplex
Verucca plantaris
Molloscum contagiosum

Question 2

Which of the following is an incorrect layer of the epidermis?

A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum granulosum
C) Stratum spinosum
D) Stratum basale
E) Stratum cellulosum

Answer 2

Stratum cellulosum

Question 3

What is the purpose of the stratum corneum layer within the epidermis?

A) It acts as a permeability barrier allowing only small molecules to diffuse into the lower regions of the epidermis.
B) It is a barrier that protects against shearing forces.
C) It is a permeable layer that allows moisture and heat to escape.
D) It houses the pigment melanin which blocks harmful solar radiation.
E) It is part of the lymphatic system by collecting and presenting bacterial proteins.

Answer 3

It acts as a permeability barrier allowing only small molecules to diffuse into the lower regions of the epidermis.

Question 4

What causes "goose bumps" or "standing-on-end" effect of bodily hair?

A) The eccrine glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.
B) The apocrine glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.
C) The sebaceous glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.
D) The arrectores pilorum contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.
E) The dermal papilla contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

Question 5

What is contained within the subcutis layer of the skin?

A) Sebum
B) Fatty tissue
C) Sweat pores
D) Sebaceous glands
E) Sensory nerve endings

Question 6

The skin lesion calledcafé´ au lait spots may be indicative of what disorder?

A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Epithelial inclusion cyst
C) Jaundice
D) Cellulitis
E) Hyperkeratosis

Question 7

Which of the followingskin trauma conditions has an etiology of improperly fitting shoes and may have the presence of hammertoes?

A) Clavus mollis
B) Clavus durus
C) Xerotic skin
D) Bulla
E) Hyperkeratosis

Question 8

Which of the followingskin trauma conditions has signs and symptoms relative to a separation of the keratin form the granular layer of the epidermis, causing an oozing wound that develops into lesions that crust and crack?

A) Xerotic skin
B) Hyperhidrosis
C) Chafing
D) Hyperkeratosis
E) Bulla

Question 9

Which of the followingskin trauma conditions would be managed with bathing in tepid water and showering once a day; using moisturizing soaps and emollients; referral to physician for topical corticosteroids?

A) Chafing
B) Clavus mollis
C) Hyperkeratosis
D) Ingrown toenail
E) Xerotic skin

Question 10

When managing hyperkeratosis of the feet and/or hands, what should be avoided?

A) Pumice stone
B) Emollients
C) Lactic acid
D) Salicylic acid
E) Donut pads

Question 11

Which of the following is a common wound cleansing technique involving direct contact of a gauze with tissues to remove debris and bacteria?

A) Whirlpool baths and soaks
B) Irrigation
C) Showering
D) Scrubbing and swabbing
E) Detoxification

Question 12

In the context of common wound cleansing techniques, identify a true statement about whirlpool baths and soaks.

A) It increases the risk of cross-contamination and maceration of tissues.
B) It is ineffective in lowering bacterial counts.
C) It has been shown to be effective in the removal of foreign bodies.
D) It is the preferred cleansing technique for open traumatic wounds.
E) It refers to the controlled flow of a solution across the wound bed and periwound tissues.

Question 13

Which of the following should an athletic trainer do when providing initial care to an athlete suffering from laceration that involves tissue approximation of superficial- to partial-thickness wound?

A) Close the wound with dermal adhesives or wound closure strips.
B) Dress the wound with a non-occlusive dressing or occlusive dressing based on the amount of exudate.
C) Cover the wound with alcohol-soaked gauze and immediately refer to a physician for further cleansing.
D) Cleanse the wound with mild soap and apply hydrogen peroxide solution over the area.
E) Apply antibiotic ointment and place occlusive dressing over the antibiotic.

Question 14

Which of the following is the most appropriate cleansing agent for all traumatic wounds?

A) Tap water
B) Povidone-iodine
C) Normal saline
D) Hydrogen peroxide
E) Isopropyl alcohol

Question 15

Which of the following debridement techniques refers to the softening and digesting of necrotic tissue by the body's mechanisms in a moist wound environment created under occlusive dressings?

A) Wet-to-moist debridement
B) Irrigation
C) Conservative sharp debridement
D) Scrubbing
E) Autolytic debridement

Question 16

In the context of primary wound dressings, which of the following is a type of occlusive dressing indicated for wounds that produce minimal levels of exudate such as superficial-thickness abrasions?

A) Adhesive strips and patches
B) Woven and nonwoven gauze
C) Films and hydrogels
D) Foams and hydrocolloids
E) Hydrocolloids and dermal adhesives

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true about occlusive dressings?

A) They are semipermeable and create a moist wound environment.
B) They include impregnated sterile gauze, adhesive strips, and wound closure strips.
C) They are less effective in healing wounds in comparison with non-occlusive dressings.
D) They lack barrier properties to microorganisms.
E) They are associated with increased levels of pain, when compared with non-occlusive dressings.

Question 18

In the context of primary wound dressings, which of the following non-occlusive dressings can be used with infected wounds and may be more cost-effective than other dressings based on the frequent dressing changes that are required?

A) Impregnated sterile gauze
B) Non-adherent pads
C) Adhesive strips and patches
D) Woven and nonwoven gauze
E) Wound closure strips

Question 19

In the context of occlusive dressings, identify a true statement about hydrogels.

A) They are constructed with a high water content and can donate moisture to the wound.
B) They are ineffective in managing partial-thickness wounds with moderate exudate amounts.
C) They are designed for partial- to full-thickness wounds with heavy exudate.
D) They interact with exudate to produce a gel that conforms to the wound contours.
E) They trap moisture underneath the dressing and are nonabsorbent.

Question 20

What is the recommended maximum amount of time that can lapse for the application of sutures to put in a wound?

A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 9 hours
D) 12 hours
E) 24 hours

Question 21

What would be an inappropriate statement of support for the use of an occlusive dressing in management of a wound?

A) Perceived pain from exposed nerve endings is lowered.
B) Scab formation is accelerated.
C) It is cost and time effective.
D) It provides barrier against bacteria.
E) It makes wound care easier.

Question 22

Which of the followingbacterial infections has an etiology of being caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, S. aureus, or a combination of the two?

A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
B) Staphylococcus
C) Furuncle
D) Carbuncle
E) Impetigo contagiosa

Question 23

Which of the followingbacterial infections has signs and symptoms of a broad range dependent on the part of the body that is infected, but results in redness, swelling, and tenderness at the site of infection?

A) Folliculitis
B) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
C) Carbuncle
D) Furuncle
E) Impetigo contagiosa

Question 24

Which of the following skin trauma conditions would be managed with the intermittent application of moist heat, antibiotic medication applied locally, as well as systematically, depending on the scope of the condition?

A) Folliculitis
B) Furuncle
C) Impetigo contagiosa
D) Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
E) Carbuncle

Question 25

Hidradenitis suppurativa can be described as a condition that affects which of the following?

A) Large sweat glands
B) Hair follicles
C) Central nervous system
D) Toe nails
E) Tear ducts

Question 26

A patient discloses having taken the meds Retin-A and clindamycin. What is the patient's skin condition?

A) Tetanus infection
B) Paronychia
C) Acne vulgaris
D) Folliculitis
E) Carbuncle

Question 27

A soccer player splits open the forehead and needs five sutures. A few days later the athlete complains of stiffness in the neck and is running a low grade fever. What could be wrong with the patient?

A) Paronychia
B) Tetanus infection
C) Carbuncle
D) Folliculitis
E) Carcinoma

Question 28

A patient presents with the skin condition demonstrated in the figure. It seems to be following an area that is consistent with dermatome T6. What could be wrong with this patient?

A) Herpes simplex labialis
B) Herpes simplex gladiatorum
C) Herpes zoster
D) Verruca virus
E) Molluscum contagiosum

Question 29

If a sunscreen has an SPF of 20, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The person should apply the sunscreen every 20 minutes.
B) The person will receive 20% less sun than a person who is not wearing sunscreen.
C) The person will be 20% less likely to receive a sunburn.
D) It would require 20 times longer to sustain the same amount of UV radiation with the sunscreen than without.
E) It would require that a person applies the product 20 times in a day to avoid full UV radiation.

Question 30

A freshman volleyball player presents with a skin condition demonstrated in the figure. What is wrong with this athlete?

A) Contact dermatitis
B) Scabies
C) Hives
D) Measles
E) Mumps

Question 31

Which of the following insects can cause Lyme disease?

A) Spiders
B) Fleas
C) Mosquitos
D) Ticks
E) Bees

Question 32

A patient presents with pain in the abdomen and back. The patient also reports of a headache, anxiety, increased blood pressure, and difficulty breathing. The patient remembers being "bit by a bug" but is unable to identify the insect. Based on the signs and symptoms, what could have bit the patient?

A) Mosquito
B) Tick
C) Brown recluse
D) Wasp
E) Yellow jacket

Question 33

Which of the following characteristics of a mole are unable to be considered when trying to diagnose a melanoma?

A) Asymmetry
B) Diameter
C) Size
D) Color
E) Border

Question 34

You notice that a patient is constantly scratching the head. Upon further investigation you see the sores demonstrated in this figure. What could be wrong with this patient?

A) Scabies
B) Pediculosis
C) Tick bites
D) Spider bite
E) Pityriasis rosea

Question 35

A patient has yellowish-white scales on the elbows, knees, and around the umbilicus. What skin condition is present?

A) Psoriasis
B) Skin cancer
C) Pityriasis rosea
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Pernio