Deck 3: Pregnancy and Prenatal Development

Question 1

Women are born with an infinite number of eggs.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

During the gestation period, the zygote grows into an embryo and then a fetus.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

The normal range of gestation is limited to 25-30 weeks.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

The proximodistal principle states that development proceeds from the head to the lower part of the trunk.

Question 5

Within 36 hours after fertilization, the zygote enters a period of rapid cell division and duplication, or mitosis.

Question 6

Defects that occur at the embryonic stage in the pregnancy are likely to be more serious than those that occur later.

Question 7

The most severely defective embryos usually do not survive beyond the first trimester.

Question 8

Males are more likely than females to be spontaneously aborted or to be stillborn.

Question 9

Most early miscarriages occur in cases that involve chromosomal abnormalities.

Question 10

Mature taste cells appear at about 14 weeks of gestation.

Question 11

Pregnant women typically need 300 to 500 additional calories a day, including extra protein.

Question 12

A pregnant woman who gains too much weight risks having a large baby that needs to be delivered by induced labor or surgically by cesarean section.

Question 13

Malnourished women who take dietary supplements while pregnant tend to have bigger, healthier, more active, and more visually alert infants.

Question 14

The risk of HIV transmission from the mother to the child can be reduced by choosing natural childbirth over a cesarean delivery.

Question 15

Rubella is an infection transmitted through contact with cat feces.

Question 16

High blood glucose levels, typical in diabetics, deprive an embryo of oxygen, with resulting cell damage, during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy when its organs are forming.

Question 17

Adolescent mothers tend to have premature or underweight babies.

Question 18

Prenatal alcohol exposure is the most common cause of intellectual disability and the leading preventable cause of birth defects in the United States.

Question 19

In the United States, prenatal care has uniform national standards and involves guaranteed financial coverage.

Question 20

According to the ________ of growth, development proceeds from parts near the center of the body to outer ones.

A) proximodistal principle
B) cephalocaudal principle
C) dorsoventral principle
D) rostrodorsal principle

Question 21

The ________ of prenatal development includes the first 2 weeks of development after fertilization.

A) fetal stage
B) embryonic stage
C) germinal stage
D) neonatal stage

Question 22

An embryo's ectoderm, one of the three layers of the embryonic disk formed during the germinal stage, later becomes

A) the excretory and circulatory systems.
B) the sensory organs and nervous system.
C) the muscles and skeleton.
D) the digestive system, liver, salivary glands, and respiratory system.

Question 23

Which of the following nurtures and protects the embryo during prenatal development?

A) the amniotic sac
B) the corpus luteum
C) the endoderm of the embryo
D) the mesoderm of the embryo

Question 24

During the germinal stage of prenatal development, the ________, a fluid-filled membrane, encases the developing embryo, giving it room to move.

A) chorion
B) placenta
C) ovarian follicle
D) amniotic sac

Question 25

The ________, which contains both maternal and embryonic tissue, develops in the uterus to allow oxygen, nourishment, and wastes to pass between the mother and the embryo.

A) placenta
B) amniotic sac
C) ectoderm
D) ovarian follicle

Question 26

In the context of prenatal development, which of the following is true of the placenta?

A) It develops and differentiates into the inner layer of skin, muscles, skeleton, and the excretory and circulatory systems.
B) It produces the hormones that support pregnancy and prepares the mother's breasts for lactation.
C) It develops into organs that will nurture and protect development in the womb.
D) It transports embryonic wastes to the umbilical cord via embryonic blood vessels.

Question 27

Which of the following carries nutrients from the mother's blood to the embryo during the germinal stage of prenatal development?

A) the umbilical cord
B) the fallopian tube
C) the corpus luteum
D) the amniotic sac

Question 28

Which of the following is true about the parts of the blastocyst that begin to develop into organs that protect and nurture the embryo?

A) The placenta is a fluid-filled membrane that encases the developing embryo, giving it room to move.
B) The mesoderm and the endoderm produce the hormones that provide nutrition to the embryo.
C) The placenta plays a role in the elimination of wastes from the embryo.
D) The amniotic sac develops in the uterus to allow oxygen and wastes to pass between the mother and the embryo.

Question 29

Which of the following is true about the placenta?

A) It encases the developing embryo within a fluid-filled membrane, giving the embryo room to move.
B) It contains only maternal tissue.
C) It helps combat internal infection and gives the unborn child immunity to various diseases.
D) It is connected to the embryo by the fallopian tube.

Question 30

During the ________ of prenatal development, from about 2 to 8 weeks of gestation, the organs and major body systems-respiratory, digestive, and nervous-develop rapidly.

A) germinal stage
B) embryonic stage
C) fetal stage
D) fertilization stage

Question 31

Which of the following statements is true about the embryonic stage of prenatal development?

A) It lasts from conception till the second week of gestation.
B) It is characterized by the development of major body systems and organs.
C) It is characterized by the formation and implantation of the blastocyst.
D) It is signaled by the appearance of the first bone cells at about 8 weeks of gestation.

Question 32

Which of the following is associated with the embryonic stage of prenatal development?

A) development of the blastocyst
B) development of fingernails and toenails
C) development of the respiratory system
D) development of the first bone cells

Question 33

Which of the following is true of the embryonic stage of gestation?

A) Defects that occur in this stage are often the most serious and are likely to cause a spontaneous abortion.
B) The first bone cells appear during this stage.
C) The embryo becomes a fetus at the beginning of this stage.
D) Some cells around the edge of the blastocyst cluster to form a thickened cell mass from which the embryo begins to develop.

Question 34

Which of the following refers to the expulsion from the uterus of an embryo or fetus that is unable to survive outside the womb?

A) ectopic pregnancy
B) stillbirth
C) pre-eclampsia
D) spontaneous abortion

Question 35

Which of the following is true about spontaneous abortions?

A) When a fetus dies at or after the 30th week of gestation, it is termed a spontaneous abortion.
B) The rates of spontaneous abortions are higher in mothers between the ages of 20 and 30.
C) The rates of spontaneous abortions are the lowest in the first trimester of pregnancy.
D) Many spontaneous abortions occur before a woman realizes that she is pregnant.

Question 36

Which of the following is an accurate trend?

A) More males are conceived than females.
B) Male fetuses develop greater immunity than female fetuses, and this advantage lasts throughout the life span.
C) Female fetuses tend to be more active than male fetuses throughout gestation.
D) Female fetuses are more likely to be spontaneously aborted than male fetuses.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is true about miscarriages?

A) A vast majority of early miscarriages are easily preventable.
B) A vast majority of early miscarriages are due to chromosomal abnormalities.
C) The risk of miscarriages is negligible after the 20th week of gestation.
D) The risk of miscarriages decreases with the increase in the age of the mother.

Question 38

The ________ of prenatal development is the final stage of gestation.

A) embryonic stage
B) neonatal stage
C) fetal stage
D) germinal stage

Question 39

Tara and Raj visit their obstetrician for a checkup to know the progress of Tara's pregnancy. The doctor informs them that the heartbeat of their baby can be heard. The doctor uses three-dimensional ultrasound and observes that the baby has started developing fingernails and toenails. Given the information, the baby is in the ________ of prenatal development.

A) germinal stage
B) fetal stage
C) embryonic stage
D) neonatal stage

Question 40

Tehra's obstetrician is employing a medical procedure that uses stacked sound wave reflections to generate a computer-aided image of the developing fetus. This procedure allows the obstetrician to observe the movements of the fetus in Tehra's womb and determine if there are any problems with her pregnancy. The procedure used is called

A) amniocentesis.
B) bioacoustics.
C) ultrasound.
D) karyotyping.

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true about male fetuses in the fetal stage of prenatal development?

A) Male fetuses tend to be more active than female fetuses.
B) Male fetuses tend to be conceived less often than female fetuses.
C) Male fetuses tend to have higher levels of immunity than female fetuses.
D) Male fetuses tend to be less likely than female fetuses to be spontaneously aborted.

Question 42

In the fetal stage of prenatal development, the fetus

A) produces immature neurons rapidly.
B) lacks the ability to move.
C) obtains nutrients and eliminates wastes without the help of the placenta.
D) lacks the ability to perceive taste and smell as these senses develop after birth.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is true of fetuses in the fetal stage of prenatal development?

A) They are more sensitive to teratogens than embryos are.
B) They begin to develop organs and body systems in a process called organogenesis.
C) They respond to the mother's voice and heartbeat and the vibrations of her body.
D) They grow more rapidly than embryos.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is true about the development of fetuses in the fetal stage?

A) Fetuses begin to breathe and are able to suck their thumbs.
B) Fetuses lack the ability to turn and flex their bodies.
C) The movements of the fetus cannot be detected by the mother.
D) The amniotic fluid stops the supply of substances to the fetus.

Question 45

Pregnant women typically need ________ additional calories a day, including extra protein.

A) 300 to 500
B) 600 to 700
C) 700 to 900
D) over 1,000

Question 46

________, a B vitamin found in leafy vegetables and in fortified cereals, is critical in a pregnant woman's diet.

A) Phytic acid
B) Nicotonic acid
C) Folic acid
D) Pantothenic acid

Question 47

Which of the following is the reason for anencephaly and spina bifida in infants?

A) folic acid deficiencies in their mothers' diets during pregnancy
B) a lack of zinc in their mothers' diets during pregnancy
C) opioid consumption by their mothers during pregnancy
D) tobacco use by their mothers during pregnancy

Question 48

Ruby, a 27-year-old woman, is pregnant and underweight. Her doctors are concerned about the impact of her weight on the health of the baby. Which of the following recommendations should Ruby follow to ensure the safety and health of both herself and the baby?

A) She should increase the intake of foods that contain trans-fatty acids.
B) She should avoid consuming folic acid-enriched grain products.
C) She should avoid the consumption of B vitamin supplements.
D) She should include more proteins and carbohydrates in her diet.

Question 49

Donna, a 32-year-old pregnant woman, is obese and likes to indulge in a diet that is rich in calories. She gains 40 pounds during her pregnancy. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) She will give birth to a low-birth-weight baby.
B) She will have a normal and safe delivery.
C) She will face greater difficulty in inducing labor.
D) She will give birth to a baby with a small head circumference.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is true of the long-range effects of prenatal malnutrition?

A) Maternal calorie restrictions put children at high risk of becoming bulimic later in life.
B) Children whose mothers had low vitamin D levels late in pregnancy are likely to suffer from osteoporosis later in life.
C) High folate levels during pregnancy have been associated with later attention-deficit/hyperactivity in 7- to 9-year-old children.
D) Pregnant women with low zinc levels who take daily zinc supplements are more likely to have babies with small head circumferences.

Question 51

Which of the following statements describes the appropriate level of physical activity for pregnant women?

A) Pregnant women should exercise strenuously to promote circulation.
B) Pregnant women should reduce all physical activities to the bare minimum in the last 3 months of their pregnancies.
C) Pregnant women should engage in exercises only in the first trimester as the risk of miscarriage is low.
D) Pregnant women should exercise moderately throughout their pregnancies.

Question 52

________ is a disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, which undermines functioning of the immune system.

A) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Rubella
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

Question 53

In the context of the effect of maternal illnesses on children, which of the following is true of the human immunodeficiency virus?

A) It is likely to cross over to the fetus's bloodstream through the placenta during pregnancy.
B) It causes deafness and heart defects in babies.
C) It is likely to cause fetal brain damage, severely impaired eyesight, seizures, and miscarriage.
D) It is associated with more active and irritable temperament in newborns.

Question 54

________, if contracted by a woman before her 11th week of pregnancy, is almost certain to cause deafness and heart defects in her baby.

A) Spina bifida
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Rubella
D) Zika

Question 55

________, caused by a parasite harbored in the bodies of cattle, sheep, and pigs and in the intestinal tracts of cats, typically produces either no symptoms or symptoms like those of the common cold.

A) Hepatitis C
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Rubella
D) Zika

Question 56

Which of the following is true of toxoplasmosis in pregnant women?

A) It is harmful to the child only if it is contracted within the first trimester of pregnancy.
B) It is manifested through severe symptoms such as brain fever and seizures in the mother.
C) It is manifested through fetal brain damage, stillbirth, or death of the baby.
D) It is more common in pregnant women suffering from gestational diabetes.

Question 57

The negative effects of toxoplasmosis in pregnant women are

A) the most potent if the mother contracts it in the second or third trimester.
B) the least potent if the mother contracts it but shows no major symptoms.
C) negligible if the mother has suffered from the infection earlier.
D) uncontrollable even if any preventive measures or vaccines are taken by the mother.

Question 58

Which of the following is true about pregnant women who are infected with the Zika virus?

A) Pregnant women who become infected with the virus are more likely to give birth to a baby with microcephaly.
B) Babies born to mothers infected with the virus are likely to be restless and hyperactive.
C) Offspring of women infected with the virus are more likely to have high blood glucose levels than other children.
D) Pregnant women who become infected with the virus are more likely to have a postterm delivery.

Question 59

Which of the following is most likely to help mothers with diabetes reduce the risk of diabetes-associated birth defects?

A) Using multivitamin supplements during the first 3 months of pregnancy
B) Performing strenuous exercise, including weightlifting, during the first 3 months of pregnancy
C) Consuming a controlled diet rich in protein throughout pregnancy
D) Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables in the last 3 months of pregnancy

Question 60

Which of the following is true about the effects of chronic stress during pregnancy?

A) Chronic stress in pregnant women can make them more vulnerable to inflammatory diseases.
B) Chronic stress in pregnant women can result in postterm delivery.
C) Chronic stress in pregnant women can leave babies at risk of developing anencephaly.
D) Chronic stress in pregnant women can cause babies to be born with an abnormally large head size.

Question 61

The chance of miscarriage or stillbirth reaches 90 percent for women age

A) 45 or older.
B) 30 or older.
C) 25 or under.
D) 30 or under.

Question 62

Which of the following is true about risks in pregnancy for adolescent mothers?

A) Adolescent mothers tend to have babies who are at heightened risk of death in the first month.
B) Adolescent mothers are more likely to have postterm deliveries.
C) Adolescent mothers tend to have overweight babies.
D) Adolescent mothers are more likely to have babies who have a high blood glucose level throughout their life.

Question 63

Marcella is pregnant with her first child. She works at a manufacturing plant where she is exposed to radioactive chemicals. As a consequence of this exposure,

A) her baby is more likely to have an Rh-factor incompatibility.
B) her baby is more likely to have hemophilia.
C) she is more likely to have twins.
D) she is more likely to have a baby with a low birth weight.

Question 64

Vera has been experiencing minor episodes of depression and mania for the last 2 years and has been treated extensively with Lithol, a lithium carbonate drug. Vera conceived while she was on this medication but took great care to avoid any other teratogens that may harm her child. As a result of this exposure to lithium, her child has an increased risk of

A) fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) sudden infant death syndrome.
C) withdrawal symptoms.
D) nicotine dependence.

Question 65

Which of the following is true about drug use during pregnancy?

A) Over-the-counter drugs are safe for use by pregnant women.
B) Taking prescription drugs with a controlled protein-rich diet greatly reduces the risk of harm to pregnant women.
C) All medications that have been tested and proven to be safe on animals are safe for use by pregnant women.
D) Central nervous system depressants can be harmful when taken during pregnancy.

Question 66

Jane is a drug addict, and she continued taking drugs even when she was pregnant with her daughter Sasha. Sasha, now a 2-year-old, looks smaller than other children of her age. She has trouble memorizing faces and things and has difficulties with perception and attention. The problems suffered by Sasha are most likely to be the effects of

A) fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) Down syndrome.
C) Prader-Willi syndrome.
D) neonate abstinence syndrome.

Question 67

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is characterized by

A) a combination of retarded growth, facial and bodily malformations, and disorders of the central nervous system.
B) low birth weight, sleep disturbances, tremors, irritability and crying, diarrhea, fever, and feeding difficulties in newborns.
C) long-term respiratory problems.
D) subtle deficits in problem-solving skills.

Question 68

________ is the most common cause of intellectual disability and the leading preventable cause of birth defects in the United States.

A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Phenylketonuria
C) Prenatal exposure to cocaine
D) Prenatal exposure to alcohol

Question 69

Which of the following is a problem related to fetal alcohol syndrome that persists throughout childhood?

A) reduced visual acuity
B) short attention span
C) reduced responsiveness to stimuli
D) slow reaction time

Question 70

Pauline is a heavy drinker. Despite doctors' advice, she continues to drink throughout her pregnancy. She gives birth to a baby who has a deformed face and body. The baby is much smaller than other newborns and has nervous system disorders. In this scenario, Pauline's baby is likely to have

A) lupus.
B) toxoplasmosis.
C) neonate abstinence syndrome.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 71

Maternal smoking during pregnancy is the

A) most common cause of mental retardation in children.
B) leading preventable cause of birth defects in the United States.
C) single most important factor in low birth weight in developed countries.
D) most common cause for fetal death and preterm labor.

Question 72

The adverse effects of nicotine exposure on prenatal development are

A) limited to exposure in the first trimester after conception.
B) restricted to those cases where the mother smokes actively.
C) linked to secondhand smoke or passive smoking by the mother.
D) limited to minor symptoms such as common cold and bear no impact on long-term development.

Question 73

Which of the following is true about the adverse effects of methamphetamine exposure during prenatal development?

A) Prenatal methamphetamine exposure is associated with high blood glucose levels in newborns.
B) Prenatal exposure to methamphetamines has been linked to unusually large head size in babies.
C) Methamphetamine-exposed children have less white matter in their brains.
D) Methamphetamine-exposed children are extremely overweight at birth.

Question 74

Which of the following is true about the effects of drugs on breast-feeding?

A) Breast milk yield increases after the consumption of prescription drugs.
B) For most drugs, the benefits of breast-feeding outweigh the risks of taking the drug.
C) Drugs cannot be transmitted into breast milk.
D) The use of medically prescribed drugs does not cause any harm to breast-feeding mothers or their children.

Question 75

Babies whose fathers had diagnostic X-rays within the year before conception or had high lead exposure at work tend to have

A) heart defects.
B) high risk of lupus.
C) high risk of type 1 diabetes.
D) slowed fetal growth.

Question 76

Which of the following statements characterizes the impact of paternal age on prenatal development?

A) Paternal age is insignificant in prenatal development because males continue to produce sperm throughout their life span.
B) Paternal age is a significant factor in prenatal development only when the father has some established genetic abnormalities.
C) Advanced paternal age is linked to increases in the risk of dwarfism, autism, and schizophrenia.
D) The adverse effects of advanced paternal age are limited to physical disabilities in the child.

Question 77

Men who smoke are more likely to

A) lack any mutational changes in their sperm.
B) exert a greater effect on prenatal development than mothers who smoke during pregnancy.
C) transmit genetic abnormalities to their offspring.
D) experience exposure to large amounts of radiation.

Question 78

Which of the following is a noninvasive technique of assessing prenatal development?

A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) umbilical cord sampling
D) ultrasound

Question 79

Marilyn is in the early months of her pregnancy and is experiencing rapid weight gain. In this case, her doctor is most likely to conduct ________ to check if she is having twins.

A) umbilical cord sampling
B) a maternal blood test
C) ultrasound
D) an endoscopy

Question 80

Which of the following is true about prenatal cell-free DNA scans?

A) They have been shown to be useful for early detection of genetic problems.
B) They are noninvasive procedures.
C) They are always definitive and more invasive than amniocentesis and umbilical cord sampling.
D) They can help detect nonchromosomal disorders.