Deck 7: Carbohydrates

Question 1

An isomer of glucose with the -OH group of the anomeric carbon C1 that is below the plane of the ring or on the right-hand side is:

A) D-glucose.
B) L-glucose.
C) ? -glucose.
D) ? -glucose.

Answer 1

? -glucose.

Question 2

Gluconeogenesis is:

A) The conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage.
B) The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, for example, amino acids, glycerol, and lactate.
C) The conversion of glucose into 3-C molecules, for example, lactate and pyruvate.
D) Breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and other intermediate products.

Answer 2

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, for example, amino acids, glycerol, and lactate.

Question 3

Glycolysis is:

A) The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO₂ and H₂O.
B) The conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage.
C) The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and other intermediate products.
D) The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources.

Answer 3

The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO₂ and H₂O.

Question 4

Glycogen is stored in the:

A) Pancreas.
B) Liver.
C) Spleen.
D) Gall bladder.

Question 5

A patient's low glucose, increased insulin, and increased C-peptide is caused by:

A) Glucagonoma.
B) Addison's disease.
C) Insulinoma.
D) Injection of exogenous insulin.

Question 6

All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes EXCEPT:

A) It converts to diabetes mellitus after pregnancy in 30-60% of patients.
B) Is diagnosed using the same glucose tolerance criteria as in nonpregnant women.
C) Is defined as glucose intolerance during pregnancy.
D) Associated with increased fetal risk.

Question 7

All of the following are confirmatory of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

A) Fasting glucose greater than 126 mg/dL.
B) Urine glucose greater than 300 mg/dL
C) 2-hour postprandial glucose greater than 200 mg/dl.
D) 1- and 2-hour glucose tolerance values greater than 200 mg/dL.

Question 8

Complications of diabetes mellitus include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Heart disease and stroke.
B) Neuropathy.
C) Nephropathy.
D) Hepatitis.

Question 9

Instructions for patients preparing for a glucose tolerance tests include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) No food 10 hours before and during the test.
B) Patient must be ambulatory for 3 days prior to the test.
C) Carbohydrate intake must be at least 150g/day for 3 days prior to the test.
D) Caffeine and smoking are permitted before and during the test.

Question 10

A patient with an insulinoma may exhibit dizziness and fainting attributable to:

A) Hypoglycemia.
B) Hyperglycemia.
C) Ketosis.
D) Acidosis.

Question 11

What type of hypoglycemia is exhibited 8 hours after a meal?

A) Reactive
B) Fasting
C) Alimentary
D) None of the above

Question 12

All of the following statements about clinical hypoglycemia are true EXCEPT:

A) Neuroglycopenic symptoms must be present at the time of the low blood sugar.
B) Symptoms can be relieved by ingestion of carbohydrates.
C) High fasting insulin levels must be present to make a diagnosis.
D) C-peptide levels are normal or elevated.

Question 13

Select the enzyme that is most specific for ?-D glucose.

A) Phosphohexisomerase
B) Hexokinase
C) Glucose oxidase
D) Glucose dehydrogenase

Question 14

The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction ATP + D-glucose ? ADP + D-glucose-6-phosphate is:

A) Glucose oxidase.
B) Lyase.
C) Hexokinase.
D) Mutase.

Question 15

In the Hexokinase method for glucose determinations, the actual end product measured is the:

A) Amount of hydrogen peroxide produced.
B) NADPH + H⁺ produced from the reduction of NADP.
C) Amount of glucose combined with bromcresol purple.
D) Condensation of glucose with an aromatic amine.

Question 16

Glucose concentration in serum is:

A) Higher than the concentration in whole blood.
B) Lower than the concentration in whole blood.
C) Equal to the concentration in whole blood.
D) Unable to predict-variable.

Question 17

In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:

A) Serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase.
B) Prevents reactivity of non glucose reducing substances.
C) Precipitates protein.
D) Inhibits glycolysis.

Question 18

Which of the following 2-hour glucose results would be classified as impaired glucose tolerance?

A) 125 mg/dL
B) 135 mg/dL
C) 160 mg/dL
D) 210 mg/dL

Question 19

The glucose concentration in normal cerebrospinal fluid is:

A) Usually less than 30 mg/dL.
B) 60-75% of the plasma glucose concentration.
C) Equal to the plasma glucose concentration.
D) Usually greater than 100 mg/dL.

Question 20

If a patient's serum glucose is 100 mg/dL, what would you expect the cerebrospinal fluid glucose to read?

A) 45 mg/dL
B) 68 mg/dL
C) 85 mg/dL
D) 95 mg/dL

Question 21

A sneaky diabetic tried to lower her glucose by working out and watching her diet 1 or 2 days before her appointment. The rest of the time she spent the day in front of the television and eating chocolates. What test could the doctor order to detect this type of behavior?

A) A glucose tolerance test
B) A glycosylated hemoglobin
C) Daily urine glucose
D) A hospital admission so he could watch her daily

Question 22

Which statement regarding glycosylated hemoglobin is TRUE?

A) It has a sugar attached to the N-terminal valine of the ?-chain of the hemoglobin molecule.
B) Is dependent upon the time averaged blood glucose over the lifespan of the RBC.
C) Levels below 7% indicate adequate regulation for 8-12 weeks prior to sampling.
D) All of the above

Question 23

Of the following blood glucose levels, which would you expect to result in glucose in the urine?

A) 70 mg/dL
B) 100 mg/dL
C) 120 mg/dL
D) 200 mg/dL

Question 24

The following glucose tolerance test values are indicative of what state?
Fasting: 85 mg/dL
1/2 hour: 135 mg/dL
1 hour: 139 mg/dL
2 hour: 130 mg/dL

A) Normal
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Addison's disease
D) Hyperinsulinism