Deck 16: Hematology

Question 1

An unusually large red blood cell is known as a:

A) Leukocyte
B) Macrocyte
C) Gametocyte
D) Reticulocyte

Answer 1

Macrocyte

Question 2

An example of an inherited bleeding disorder is:

A) Anticoagulation with warfarin
B) Antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel
C) Christmas Disease
D) Alcoholism

Answer 2

Christmas Disease

Question 3

A circulating cell that consumes antigens, foreign cells, and other debris is known as a/an:

A) Erythrocyte
B) Megakaryocyte
C) Lymphocyte
D) Phagocyte

Answer 3

Phagocyte

Question 4

A patient with thrombocytopenia is more likely than a normal individual to:

A) Form blood clots
B) Bleed
C) Become infected
D) Lose weight

Question 5

Polycythemia is an excess of:

A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets
D) None of the above

Question 6

Iron deficiency anemia commonly occurs in all of the following classes of people, EXCEPT:

A) Menstruating women
B) People with chronic gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Omnivores

Question 7

A common finding in patients with vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A) Hypothyroidism
B) Macrocytosis and multilobed neutrophils
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Thrombocytopenia

Question 8

Folate deficiency is a common cause of anemia in:

A) Alcoholics
B) Farmers
C) Health food enthusiasts
D) Fruitarians

Question 9

Sickle cell anemia is an example of a "molecular disease." It:

A) Can be cured by injecting simple compounds or single genes into the circulation
B) Results from a single amino acid substitution in a polypeptide chain
C) Is incompatible with life after infancy

Question 10

An example of a disease in which there are too many lymphocytes in the blood is:

A) HIV/AIDS
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) Breast cancer
D) Meningococcal meningitis

Question 11

A hypercoagulable state is likely to:

A) Predispose a patient to deep venous thrombosis
B) Prevent stroke
C) Prevent cardiac arrhythmias
D) Predispose a patient to cirrhosis of the liver

Question 12

The organ that manufactures most clotting factors is:

A) The kidney
B) The lung
C) The liver
D) The pancreas

Question 13

An individual with severe neutropenia is likely to be troubled by:

A) Bleeding
B) Blood clotting
C) Infection
D) Fatigue

Question 14

Neural tube defects (such as myelomeningocele) may be prevented by:

A) Parental bonding with the newborn infant
B) Maternal folate supplementation
C) Cigarette smoking
D) High doses of corticosteroids

Question 15

People with polycythemia rubra vera have too many ___; people with essential thrombocytosis have too many ___; both diseases are known as _____.

A) White blood cells; platelets; leukemias
B) Red blood cells; white blood cells; myeloproliferative disorders
C) Neutrophils; red blood cells; leukemias
D) Red blood cells, platelets; myeloproliferative disorders

Question 16

Which of the following drugs frequently causes myelosuppression?

A) Thiazide diuretics
B) Chemotherapeutic agents
C) Insulin
D) Prednisone

Question 17

A blast cell:

A) Gives rise to [is the parent cell of] more differentiated cells
B) Explodes on contact with dangerous antigens
C) Makes invading bacteria explode, on contact

Question 18

Which of the following blood cells has no nucleus?

A) Neutrophil
B) Erythrocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Granulocyte

Question 19

The lowest concentration of blood cells measured in a cancer patient who has been treated with chemotherapy, typically a week or two after treatment, is known as the:

A) Obliquity
B) Naivity
C) Nanoparticle
D) Nadir

Question 20

Neutrophilia would NOT be expected in a patient who:

A) Has received cancer chemotherapy
B) Has suffered extensive burns
C) Has a serious infection, such as pneumonia or diverticulitis
D) Has just experienced an epileptic seizure

Question 21

A blood cell with a high nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio:

A) Is likely to be infected
B) Is likely to be an immature cell
C) Is the red blood cell
D) Is the platelet

Question 22

A common finding in swollen lymph nodes that have been infiltrated by cancer is:

A) They are rock hard
B) They are very small
C) They are fluctuant
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 23

People who have been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who are well treated with antiretroviral drugs:

A) Can donate red blood cells to other people
B) Can donate plasma, but not red blood cells or platelets to other people
C) Are excluded permanently from donating blood or internal organs

Question 24

A well-cared-for, expectant, pregnant woman would like to donate blood to her father, who plans to undergo elective surgery. Their blood cross-matches perfectly. Blood donation is:

A) Permitted, and encouraged, because a woman who receives optimal prenatal care is among the most fit of all potential blood donors.
B) Prohibited, and discouraged until 12 months after delivery.

Question 25

Which of the following is a PERMANENT contraindication to blood donation:

A) A history of seizures
B) A history of injection drug use
C) A history of leukemia or lymphoma
D) A history of receiving a live vaccination

Question 26

A Peace Corps volunteer returns from a three-year assignment in the tropics. He would like to donate blood to a sick friend who is receiving cancer chemotherapy and is severely anemic. He should:

A) Delay blood donation, until the incubation period for the potential infections to which he may have been exposed, is over.
B) Delay blood donation for at least one year.
C) Never donate blood. The risk of transmission of tropical infections to another person is too high at any time.

Question 27

Which of the following temporarily exclude a person from donating blood?

A) Age less than 16 years.
B) Recent release from prison or jail
C) Fever
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 28

Blood is composed of both a circulating fluid, called ________________, and a cellular component, composed of ______________________.

A) Electrolytes; neutrophils, platelets, and erythrocytes
B) Globulins; neutrophils, platelets, and monocytes
C) Plasma; leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes
D) Water; white blood cells, platelets, and eosinophils

Question 29

Blood cells that are old, damaged, or coated with antibodies are removed from the circulation by the:

A) Spleen
B) Adrenal glands
C) Thymus
D) Thyroid

Question 30

A cytokine that encourages the production of red blood cells is called ____________________. It is made by cells in the ______________________.

A) Interleukin 6; liver
B) Erythropoietin; kidney
C) Surfactant; lung
D) Brain natriuretic peptide; central nervous system

Question 31

A stem cell is a:

A) Precursor cell that gives rise to more differentiated blood cells of all cell types
B) Precursor cell that gives rise to more differentiated white blood cells
C) Monocyte that enters a tissue and takes up residence there, in order to survey it for immunological threats/challenges
D) Cell that produces antibodies

Question 32

The largest percentage of leukocytes consists of the:

A) Basophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Neutrophils

Question 33

Blood cells have antigenic markers on the surface of their cell membranes. People with certain ABO blood antigens can accept a transfusion from some donors, but not from others. Indicate if the following transfusion is likely to result in a transfusion reaction: Donor ABO type: A
Recipient ABO type: A

A) The proposed blood transfusion would be safe (ABO compatible)
B) The proposed transfusion is likely to cause a transfusion reaction

Question 34

A defect in blood clotting is known as a:

A) Christmas factor
B) Thrombophilia
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Coagulopathy

Question 35

John formed a blood clot in his femoral vein after fracturing his thigh. This is another way of saying:

A) That he has a deep venous thrombosis
B) That he has hemophilia
C) That he has a pulmonary embolism
D) That he has thrombocytopenia

Question 36

A few centuries ago, bleeding a patient was a treatment for a wide variety of ailments, real, imaginary, and misunderstood. In contemporary medical practice, removal of blood from a patient, called _______________________, is infrequently used. However, the blood disease _________ is still commonly treated by periodic bloodletting.

A) Phlebotomy; hemochromatosis
B) Phlebolith; hemosiderosis
C) Venography; von Willebrand's disease
D) Angiography; fibromyalgia

Question 37

A patient with anemia has a:

A) Diminished number of red blood cells per ml of blood
B) Diminished number of white blood cells per ml of blood
C) Diminished number of platelets per ml of blood
D) Diminished plasma volume

Question 38

Two identical twin boys are separated for a year. One lives at sea level, and the other lives in the mountains, at about a 7000-ft elevation. Assuming neither has any episode of bleeding, and both are fed an equivalent diet, what could you conclude about the red blood cell mass of each of the boys?

A) They would be the same at the end of the year.
B) The boy living in the mountains would have a higher red blood cell count than the boy living at sea level.
C) The boy living at sea level would have a higher red blood cell count.

Question 39

Compared to a normochromic red blood cell, a hypochromic red cell:

A) Has more hemoglobin
B) Has less hemoglobin
C) Has an equivalent amount of hemoglobin

Question 40

The oxygen-binding molecule in red blood cells is known as:

A) Hemoglobin
B) Hemolysis
C) Hematochezia
D) Immunoglobulin

Question 41

Aging red blood cells are broken down and recycled by the macrophages in the liver, spleen, and other organs in a process known as:

A) Hematemesis
B) Hemolysis
C) Hematochezia
D) Epistaxis

Question 42

In healthy people, new red blood cell creation is roughly equal to red cell recycling/destruction. When a large number of red blood cells are suddenly fragmented, which of the following substances may be found in the plasma in excess concentration?

A) Unconjugated bilirubin
B) D-dimer
C) Fibrin
D) Tissue plasminogen activator

Question 43

Which of the following nutritional deficiencies is UNLIKELY to produce anemia?

A) Folate deficiency
B) Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Vitamin D deficiency

Question 44

Some people develop very low circulating white blood cell counts (leucopenia) after treatments for cancer with chemotherapy or total body irradiation. When low white blood cell counts persist for several weeks, these individuals are likely to experience:

A) Fatigue, malaise, and breathlessness or palpitations when they exert themselves
B) Bleeding, especially from the gums or nose
C) Fevers and infections
D) Bone and joint pains

Question 45

Monocytes and macrophages:

A) Accumulate in abscesses and are the primary cellular component of pus
B) Prevent bleeding, by filling the fibrin mesh that forms during blood clotting
C) Are phagocytes
D) Produce and release antibodies in response to foreign antigens

Question 46

Several drugs are used because they interfere with blood clotting. Which of the following agents used is inactivated by vitamin K?

A) Acetylsalicylic acid
B) Clopidogrel
C) Heparin
D) Warfarin

Question 47

A patient with an acute coronary syndrome has been in the Cardiac Intensive Care unit for several days, and a complete blood count (CBC) shows that he has developed severe thrombocytopenia. This is most likely the result of exposure to which of the following medications?

A) Heparin
B) Metoprolol
C) Solumedrol
D) Aspirin

Question 48

Which of the following blood cells DO NOT release inflammatory mediators into the blood stream?

A) Erythrocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) B lymphocytes
E) T lymphocytes

Question 49

The prothrombin time:

A) Is the time needed for half of a population to die after exposure to ionizing radiation
B) Is the time it takes for blood to clot after exposure to thromboplastin
C) Is the time needed for a population of cells to double
D) Is the time it takes for food to pass from the mouth through the gut

Question 50

Which of the following is the most common vitamin deficiency among alcoholics?

A) Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency
B) Vitamin C deficiency
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Folate deficiency

Question 51

Plasma is more than 90% water. It also is made up of:

A) Fibrinogen
B) Globulins
C) Albumin
D) Platelets

Question 52

Defibrinated blood:

A) Cannot clot
B) Cannot be used for transfusion therapy
C) Has no platelets
D) Has been altered by an electrical shock

Question 53

The cascade of events that results in the formation of a blood clot requires which of the following elements?

A) Coagulation factors
B) Fibrin
C) Platelets
D) Anticoagulants

Question 54

Which of the following blood tests can be used to determine the amount of iron in the blood?

A) . Platelet count
B) Ferritin
C) Leukocyte count
D) Iron, total iron binding capacity

Question 55

Bone marrow releases red blood cells into the circulation on demand, under stress, or when the cells have matured. Which of the following are examples of young or immature red blood cells?

A) Megakaryocytes
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Reticulocytes
D) Normocytes

Question 56

Which of the following diseases or conditions is likely to increase D-dimer levels?

A) Deep venous thrombosis
B) Recent surgery
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Blunt trauma, with ecchymoses

Question 57

Eosinophil levels rise in which of the following conditions?

A) Allergic diseases or reactions
B) Asthma
C) Parasitic diseases
D) Stroke