Deck 13: Antihypertensive Agents and Hyperlipidemia

Question 1

An uncontrollable, severe, and rapidly progressive form of high blood pressure with many complications is referred to as:

A) hypertension
B) hypotension
C) malignant hypertension
D) malignant hyperthermia

Answer 1

malignant hypertension

Question 2

Which of the following are NOT antihypertensives?

A) peripheral vasoconstrictors
B) angiotensin II receptor antagonists
C) adrenergic blockers
D) peripheral vasodilators

Answer 2

peripheral vasoconstrictors

Question 3

Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?

A) propranolol
B) coumarin
C) rosuvastatin
D) trimethadione

Answer 3

rosuvastatin

Question 4

Clonidine, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

A) a beta-blocker
B) a diuretic
C) a peripherally acting blocker
D) a centrally acting blocker

Question 5

The statin drugs are used in the treatment of elevated:

A) total serum calcium
B) total serum triglycerides
C) blood sugar
D) serum uric acid

Question 6

Which of the following is the serious adverse effect of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (the statins)?

A) stroke
B) rhabdomyolysis
C) retrograde amnesia
D) congestive heart failure

Question 7

Abrupt withdrawal of treatment for hypertension may lead to which of the following complications?

A) postural hypotension
B) malignant hyperthermia
C) renal failure
D) rebound hypertension

Question 8

Furosemide is classified as which of the following?

A) a diuretic
B) an anticonvulsant
C) an anticoagulant
D) an antianxiety

Question 9

The trade name of spironolactone is which of the following?

A) Lasix
B) Dyrenium
C) Aldactone
D) Midamor

Question 10

Nitroprusside is classified as which of the following?

A) a sympatholytic agent
B) a vasodilator
C) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist
D) an ACE inhibitor

Question 11

Which of the following should be used cautiously in individuals with history of gallbladder disease, liver impairment, and peptic ulcer?

A) niacin (vitamin B₃)
B) cyanocobalamin (vitamin B₁₂)
C) erythromycin base
D) furosemide

Question 12

Mannitol and urea are most commonly used to reduce:

A) sleep
B) milk in lactating women
C) intracranial pressure
D) blood sugar

Question 13

A patient with high serum cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein is at risk for which of the following?

A) kidney failure
B) atherosclerosis
C) peptic ulcer
D) urinary tract infection

Question 14

Which of the following are major drugs for the reduction of cholesterol levels?

A) diuretics and potassium supplements
B) angiotensin II receptor antagonists and ascorbic acid
C) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and tocopherol
D) bile acid sequestrants and nicotinic acid

Question 15

The primary indication of clofibrate is for which of the following conditions?

A) essential hypertension
B) hyperlipidemia that does not respond to diet
C) preeclampsia in the late stages of pregnancy
D) hyperuricemia and gout

Question 16

Which of the following agents may be prescribed as an adjunct to diet for treatment of adults with very high serum triglyceride levels who present a risk for pancreatitis?

A) furosemide
B) chlorothiazide
C) niacin
D) prazosin

Question 17

Which of the following is a class of drugs that inhibits the activity of an enzyme that forms cholesterol in the body?

A) vasodilators
B) statins
C) diuretics
D) none of the above

Question 18

Which of the following substances slow the formation of angiotensin II, which reduces vascular resistance, blood volume, and blood pressure?

A) renin
B) angiotensin
C) aldosterone
D) erythropoietin

Question 19

Which of the following classes of antihypertensive drugs has been the most rapidly growing group for the treatment of hypertension?

A) diuretics
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
C) angiotensin II receptor antagonists
D) adrenergic blockers?

Question 20

Which of the following complications may be caused after using spironolactone?

A) peptic ulcer and cystic fibrosis of the lungs
B) liver and kidney failure
C) ovarian cancer and gynecomastia
D) carcinoma of the breast and gynecomastia

Question 21

Hypertension is an abnormal increase in ____________________ blood pressure.

Question 22

Elimination of large amounts of fat in the stool is referred to as ____________________.

Question 23

Antihypertensives include angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, centrally and peripherally acting blockers (sympatholytics), peripheral vasodilators, ____________________ blockers, and ____________________.

Question 24

A patient with increased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is at risk of ____________________ coronary disease and myocardial infarction.

Question 25

A common problem associated with bile acid sequestrants is ____________________.

Question 26

__________ is characterized by the presence of myoglobin in the urine and is associated with acute renal failure in heatstroke.

Question 27

The pressure measured at the moment the heart contracts is called __________ blood pressure.

Question 28

Essential hypertension is also called __________ hypertension.

Question 29

__________ hypertension is uncontrollable and severe, with many complications.

Question 30

Renal failure is increased during hypertension because the blood flow through the kidneys is __________.

Question 31

There are __________ groups of drugs that act to lower blood pressure.

Question 32

The most important site of angiotensin-converting enzyme is in the __________.

Question 33

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist drugs work by blocking the binding of angiotensin to the __________ __________ receptors.

Question 34

__________ is derived from the Rauwolfia serpentina.

Question 35

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-colestipol

A)Welchol
B)Colestid
C)Pravachol
D)Lescol
E)Tricor

Question 36

Elevated triglycerides can produce life-threatening __________.

Question 37

Antihyperlipidemic drugs are used only if __________ modification and exercise programs fail to lower LDL to normal levels.

Question 38

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors may have __________ effects if taken with rifamycin.

Question 39

Fibric acid derivatives stimulate the liver to increase breakdown of VLDL to LDL, and decrease liver synthesis of VLDL by inhibiting __________ formation.

Question 40

Triglyceride levels less than 150 mg / dL are __________.

Question 41

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-atorvastatin

A)Mevacor
B)Zocor
C)Lipitor
D)Niaspan
E)Atromid-S

Question 42

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-nicotinic acid

A)Mevacor
B)Zocor
C)Lipitor
D)Niaspan
E)Atromid-S

Question 43

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-clofbrate

A)Mevacor
B)Zocor
C)Lipitor
D)Niaspan
E)Atromid-S

Question 44

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-simvastatin

A)Mevacor
B)Zocor
C)Lipitor
D)Niaspan
E)Atromid-S

Question 45

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-lovastatin

A)Mevacor
B)Zocor
C)Lipitor
D)Niaspan
E)Atromid-S

Question 46

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-fenofibrate

A)Welchol
B)Colestid
C)Pravachol
D)Lescol
E)Tricor

Question 47

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-fluvastatin

A)Welchol
B)Colestid
C)Pravachol
D)Lescol
E)Tricor

Question 48

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-colesevelam

A)Welchol
B)Colestid
C)Pravachol
D)Lescol
E)Tricor

Question 49

Match the generic name with the trade name.

-pravastatin

A)Welchol
B)Colestid
C)Pravachol
D)Lescol
E)Tricor