Deck 3: Genetics, Conception, and Prenatal Development

Question 1

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Amniocentesis

Answer 1

A procedure for prenatal diagnosis in which a small sample of fluid is taken from the amniotic sac and used to detect any genetic or chromosomal abnormalities.

Question 2

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Assisted reproductive technology (ART)

Answer 2

Fertility treatments in which both egg and sperm are handled.

Question 3

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Autosomes

Answer 3

Any of the chromosomes other than the sex-determining chromosomes.

Question 4

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Blastocyst

Question 5

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Cephalocaudal principle

Question 6

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) (81)

Question 7

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Chromosomes

Question 8

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) (62)

Question 9

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Dizygotic twins

Question 10

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Down syndrome

Question 11

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Ectoderm

Question 12

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Embryonic stage

Question 13

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Endoderm

Question 14

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

Question 15

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Fetal stage

Question 16

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Genes

Question 17

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Germinal stage

Question 18

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Maternal serum alpha test

Question 19

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Meiosis

Question 20

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Mesoderm

Question 21

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Mitosis

Question 22

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Monozygotic twins

Question 23

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Multifactorial transmission

Question 24

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Neural tube defects

Question 25

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Neuron

Question 26

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Ovum

Question 27

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Placenta

Question 28

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Preimplantation genetic (PGD)

Question 29

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Proximodistal principle

Question 30

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Sex-linked inheritance

Question 31

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Sex chromosomes

Question 32

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Sperm

Question 33

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Teratogens

Question 34

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Ultrasound

Question 35

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Umbilical cord

Question 36

What is the definition of the following terms?
-Zygote

Question 37

Autosomes

A) are the chromosomes that determine sex
B) are a set of 22 pairs of chromosomes other than the sex-determining chromosomes
C) were unknown until discovered in the Human Genome Project
D) are the chromosomes associated with x-linked diseases and traits

Question 38

All of the following statements about mitosis are correct except

A) it occurs only during the prenatal period
B) it is a lifelong process
C) it results in two identical cells
D) it occurs during the germinal stage

Question 39

Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

A) females have two pairs of sex chromosomes, males have one pair
B) females have two X chromosomes, males have one X and one Y
C) males have more sex chromosomes than females have
D) males have sex chromosomes, females have autosomes

Question 40

A genetic counselor is meeting with a couple considering trying to become pregnant. One of the prospective parents tells the counselor that her father has Huntington's disease. The counselor will probably tell this couple

A) that the chance of their child having Huntington's disease is relatively low because they would need to pass on two recessive genes for the disease
B) that any child they have together has a 100 percent chance of developing Huntington's disease
C) to adopt rather than have a biological child because it is impossible to calculate the chance that their offspring will have Huntington's disease
D) that any biological children they have will develop Huntington's if they receive even one mutant HD gene

Question 41

Prior to conception, the sex cells of the egg divide through the process of

A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) dominant transmission
D) recessive transmission

Question 42

When an ovum is first fertilized by a sperm, it is referred to as a

A) fetoprotein
B) zygote
C) blastocyst
D) metrodermus

Question 43

All of the following statements about twins are correct except

A) when a single fertilized ovum divides into two separate cells, it results in monozygotic twins
B) when two different eggs are released and fertilized by two different sperm, the result is dizygotic twins
C) in some twin pregnancies, one of the twins "vanishes" when each of the twins possesses a different variant of a gene on the same chromosome
D) monozygotic twins can be the same sex (two boys or two girls) or different sexes (one boy and one girl)

Question 44

A couple who have not been able to become pregnant despite trying for 12 months without using any contraception might consider using assisted reproductive technology (ART). All of the following are considered ART procedures except

A) intrauterine insemination (IUI)
B) in vitro fertilization (IVF)
C) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D) intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Question 45

The prenatal stage of development that begins with fertilization and ends at approximately 2 weeks is the _____ stage.

A) preconception
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) fetal

Question 46

Aftere the zygote is implanted in the uterine lining, it is referred to as

A) a blastocyst
B) a dizygote
C) an embryo
D) an ectoderm

Question 47

During which prenatal stage does exposure to teratogens pose the greatest risk to the development of major organ systems and structures?

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) neonatal

Question 48

Which order of prenatal events is correct?

A) the heart begins beating, implantation occurs, bone cells appear, the ectoderm forms
B) the ectoderm forms, bone cells appear, the heart begins beating, implantation occurs
C) bone cells appear, implantation occurs, the heart begins beating, the ectoderm forms
D) implantation occurs, the ectoderm forms, the heart begins beating, bone cells appear

Question 49

Angela, still early in her first pregnancy, is surprised to see in an ultrasound image that her fetus's feet are the same size as its head. The ultrasound technician tells Angela that

A) this is an example of the caudocephalo principle of development
B) anterior (head) regions are usually bigger than and develop prior to posterior (feet) regions
C) prenatal development is often haphazard and does not usually follow any particular direction
D) this is an example of the proximodistal principle of development

Question 50

Marcus and Tonya's baby was born with significant respiratory and digestive tract problems. This suggests that there may have been a problem during the development of the

A) endoderm
B) mesoderm
C) ectoderm
D) HOX genes

Question 51

Spina bifida, anencephaly, encephalocele, and hydranencephaly are

A) examples of mesodermal variations
B) different layers of the normal process of embryonic cell differentiation
C) different terms for the same prenatally developing brain structure
D) different forms of neural tube defects

Question 52

When a pregnancy ends spontaneously after 20 weeks, it is referred to as

A) an ectopic pregnancy
B) a miscarriage
C) a stillbirth
D) a neural tube defect

Question 53

The most common type of birth defect resulting from a chromosomal abnormality is

A) Down syndrome
B) Müllerian syndrome
C) placental abruption
D) Wolffian degeneration

Question 54

Which types of birth defects are the most common in the United States?

A) spina bifida
B) anencephaly
C) congenital heart defects
D) gastrointestinal tract defects

Question 55

If Sylvie wants to prevent neural tube defects when she is pregnant, she should

A) consume enough folic acid
B) sleep on her back
C) avoid becoming overheated
D) consume extra vitamin A

Question 56

Heidi contracted German measles (rubella) during the first trimester of pregnancy, putting her baby at risk of having a(n)

A) congenital heart defect
B) neural tube defect
C) higher risk of developing fetal alcohol syndrome
D) excess of folic acid

Question 57

The procedure in which blastocysts resulting from in vitro fertilization are biopsied in order to determine whether they are carriers of a known hereditary disease is

A) gamete intrafallopian transfer
B) zygote intrafallopian transfer
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
D) placental gamete differentiation

Question 58

The name of the test in which a blood sample from the mother is analyzed for indicators of fetal abnormalities is

A) ultrasound
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) amniocentesis
D) maternal serum alpha fetoprotein test

Question 59

Which of the following lists different forms of prenatal diagnosis from least to most risky?

A) amniocentesis, ultrasound, maternal serum alpha fetoprotein test
B) ultrasound, maternal serum alpha fetoprotein test, amniocentesis
C) maternal serum alpha fetoprotein test, amniocentesis, ultrasound
D) maternal serum alpha fetoprotein test, ultrasound, amniocentesis

Question 60

Which of the following prenatal diagnostic tests is routinely used at the earliest point in pregnancy?

A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) ultrasound
D) fetal echocardiography

Question 61

What options are currently available if a defect is detected during the fetal stage?

A) nothing can be done before the baby is born
B) surgery may be performed, with the fetus remaining connected to the placenta and being returned to the uterus for the remainder of the pregnancy
C) if the problem is the result of a genetic defect, healthy genes can be inserted into the baby's body within 24 hours of birth
D) somatic gene therapy can be used to correct the problem in the fetus and in any future offspring that the fetus may have

Question 62

The term for a substance that is known to interfere with healthy prenatal development is a(n)

A) triple threat
B) trisomy-25
C) teratogen
D) endogenous factor

Question 63

The leading preventable cause of birth defects, mental retardation, and neurodevelopmental disorders is

A) insufficient amounts of iron prenatally
B) an excess of folic acid prenatally
C) prenatal exposure to nicotine
D) prenatal exposure to alcohol

Question 64

Children with fetal alcohol syndrome often have

A) larger than normal brains
B) mental retardation
C) a higher tolerance for the intoxicating effects of alcohol
D) no outward signs of prenatal exposure to alcohol

Question 65

Which of the following is not a preexisting chronic health condition that may affect a fetus's development and health?

A) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B) gestational diabetes (GD)
C) cytomegalovirus infection (CMV)
D) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

Question 66

If Lisette consumes adequate amounts of iodine while pregnant, her baby is unlikely to develop

A) hypothyroidism
B) blindness
C) a neural tube defect
D) cleft lip or palate