Deck 2: Heredity, Environment, and Prenatal Development

Question 1

Your spouse is a carrier of a recessive trait for a disability. If you are also a carrier, what is the chance that your offspring will have the disability?

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 25%

Answer 1

25%

Question 2

When monozygotic twins are more similar on a trait than dizygotic twins, the trait is considered to be more rooted in:

A) genetics.
B) prenatal exposures.
C) environment.
D) discontinuity.

Answer 2

genetics.

Question 3

A child's sex is determined by:

A) the mother.
B) the time of month.
C) the father.
D) prenatal hormones.

Answer 3

the father.

Question 4

A sudden but permanent change in a segment of DNA is known as:

A) mutation.
B) gametes.
C) allele.
D) zygote.

Question 5

Prenatal exposure to alcohol that impacts cognitive function but physical appearance is known as:

A) Fetal Alcohol Syndrome.
B) Fetal Alcohol Effects.
C) Alcohol-Related Neurodevelopmental Disorder.
D) Alcohol-Related Birth Defects.

Question 6

One prenatal genetic test that involves withdrawing fluid from the amniotic sac that is called:

A) amniocentesis.
B) chorionic villus sampling.
C) implantation.
D) synaptogenesis.

Question 7

Fraternal twins share what percentage of their genetic information?

A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) more than nontwin siblings

Question 8

Siblings who are conceived from ovum that splits after fertilization with each half having the same genetic material are known as:

A) fraternal twins.
B) identical twins.
C) dizygotic twins.
D) nontwin siblings.

Question 9

One month, Mary's ovaries released two ova, which were each fertilized. Mary's twins will be:

A) identical.
B) fraternal.
C) monozygotic.
D) diova.

Question 10

Each cell contains:

A) 23 chromosomes.
B) 23 pairs of chromosomes.
C) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
D) thousands of chromosomes.

Question 11

Which of the following is a possible pairing of bases in DNA?

A) adenine-cytosine
B) thymine-guanine
C) adenine-guanine
D) adenine-thymine

Question 12

The molecule that contains genetic information is known as:

A) a chromosome.
B) a gene.
C) deoxyribonucleic acid.
D) guanine.

Question 13

The sections of DNA that control the development of inherited characteristics is known as:

A) chromosomes.
B) genes.
C) mitosis.
D) cytosine.

Question 14

A group of 20,000 to 25,000 genes, arranged in a long string, is known as a:

A) chromosome.
B) gene.
C) deoxyribonucleic acid.
D) mitosis.

Question 15

Cell division that results in two different cells with 23 chromosomes is known as:

A) DNA.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) mutation.

Question 16

In males, gametes are known as:

A) ovum.
B) sperm.
C) zygote.
D) gene.

Question 17

For each matching pair of chromosomes, two versions of each gene exist, one from the mother and one from the father. Each version is called an:

A) zygote.
B) gamete.
C) gene pair.
D) allele.

Question 18

Scott has blond hair; he must be _________________ for the hair color allele.

A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) polygenic
D) dominant

Question 19

A trait in which both alleles influence the expression of the trait is known as:

A) dominant recessive.
B) X-linked inheritance
C) biallele.
D) codominance.

Question 20

Compared to other chromosomes, the Y chromosome is:

A) longer.
B) shorter.
C) more fragile.
D) less fragile.

Question 21

Skin color is determined by the action of many genes in conjunction with some environmental factors this. This form of inheritance is known as:

A) dominant recessive.
B) X-linked.
C) multi-allele.
D) polygenic.

Question 22

Which is a possible cause of genetic mutation?

A) microwaves
B) X-rays
C) family members conceiving children together
D) maternal smoking

Question 23

Sickle cell anemia may have persisted in certain populations because of what survival advantage?

A) reduces high blood pressure
B) increases height
C) protects against malaria
D) prevents blood clotting

Question 24

A genetic disorder that causes damage to the central nervous system if not controlled by special dietary measures is known as:

A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) Down Syndrome.

Question 25

A genetic disorder in which blood cells have trouble passing through small blood vessels causing blood clots to occur is known as:

A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) Down Syndrome.

Question 26

Although PKU is a genetic disorder that causes retardation it effects can be prevented by:

A) educating parents in how to stimulate their infants.
B) extra oxygen available to newborns.
C) providing infants with a special diet.
D) reducing maternal smoking during pregnancy.

Question 27

Today all newborn babies in the United States are tested for:

A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) Down Syndrome.

Question 28

John inherited a recessive allele for sickle cell anemia from his mother and a normal allele from her father. John:

A) has sickle cell anemia.
B) is a carrier of sickle cell anemia.
C) neither has or is a carrier of sickle cell anemia.
D) has a 25% chance of getting sickle cell anemia.

Question 29

An inherited disorder in which blood fails to clot normally is known as:

A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 30

Joey bruises easily and has prolonged bleeding after minor injuries. Joey may suffer from:

A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 31

Josh has a long face and prominent ears. He is short and has social anxiety and language delays along with mild retardation. Josh may have:

A) phenylketonuria.
B) Down Syndrome.
C) Fragile X syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 32

An X-linked disorder in which a gene is unable to produce enough of a protein crucial to the functioning of the central nervous system is known as:

A) phenylketonuria.
B) Down Syndrome.
C) Fragile X syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 33

A chromosomal abnormality that results from an extra portion of the 21st chromosome is known as:

A) phenylketonuria.
B) Down Syndrome.
C) Fragile X syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 34

Down Syndrome is also known as:

A) phenylketonuria.
B) trisomy 21.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) hemophilia.

Question 35

Jane has a flat facial profile and almond shaped-eyes. She also has slow motor development and mental handicaps. She shows some symptoms of:

A) phenylketonuria.
B) hemophilia.
C) Fragile X Syndrome.
D) trisomy 21.

Question 36

Ben and Lisa have an infant with trisomy 21. They can expect that their child will:

A) live only into early adulthood.
B) live only into early adolescence.
C) live well into adulthood.
D) have a normal lifespan.

Question 37

The only known risk for trisomy 21 is:

A) paternal age.
B) maternal age.
C) maternal smoking.
D) maternal weight.

Question 38

By the age of 40, a woman's chance of having a baby with Down Syndrome has increased to:

A) 1 in 1,000.
B) 1 in 400.
C) 1 in 110.
D) 1 in 60.

Question 39

People who have Klinefelter's syndrome have a chromosomal abnormality that includes:

A) XXY.
B) XXX.
C) XYY.
D) XO.

Question 40

Susan is shorter than normal and has impaired spatial intelligence. She may suffer from which chromosomal abnormality?

A) Klinefelter's Syndrome
B) Turner Syndrome
C) Down Syndrome
D) Fragile X Syndrome

Question 41

Research on members of a single family that assesses the extent to which specific characteristics appear, in order to learn more about their hereditary and environmental causes is known as:

A) twin studies.
B) behavior genetics.
C) genetic counseling.
D) family studies.

Question 42

Genetic counselors gather family information and discuss with potential parents the likelihood that:

A) they will have a child of the preferred sex.
B) they will have a child with chromosomal or other genetic defects.
C) they will experience a difficult pregnancy.
D) they will have a baby born preterm.

Question 43

What percentage of live births is the result of an unintended pregnancy?

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 44%
D) 60%

Question 44

The female reproductive tract which extends from the ovaries to the uterus is known as:

A) ovum.
B) fallopian tube.
C) placenta.
D) ovulation.

Question 45

As the ovum moves through the fallopian tube, hormones from the ovaries triggers:

A) the release of an egg from the ovaries.
B) the opening of uterus to widen.
C) the production of a soft lining for the uterus.
D) the development of a primitive placenta.

Question 46

Men create sperm in their testes:

A) every day.
B) every week.
C) every month.
D) during the prenatal period, and not after birth.

Question 47

The likelihood of conception increases if the sperm enters the female reproductive tract:

A) a week before ovulation.
B) a week after ovulation.
C) the day of ovulation.
D) the day after ovulation.

Question 48

The most common cause of infertility in couples is:

A) low sperm count.
B) ovulation occurring at unexpected times.
C) blockage of the fallopian tubes.
D) inhospitable uterine environment.

Question 49

Jody and Mitch have been unsuccessful in becoming pregnant for 12 months; their doctor recommends in vitro fertilization. This technique involves:

A) transferring an egg and sperm into the fallopian tube.
B) transferring a fertilized egg into the uterus.
C) transferring a fertilized egg into the fallopian tubes.
D) transferring an egg and sperm into the uterus.

Question 50

About what percentage of births each year are a result of alternative reproductive technology?

A) 1%
B) 4%
C) 7%
D) 10%

Question 51

Identical twins are also known as:

A) monozygotic twins.
B) dizygotic twins.
C) bizygotic twins.
D) fraternal twins.

Question 52

Which group of women is not more likely to give birth to dizygotic twins?

A) African American women
B) younger women
C) Asian American women
D) women who use alternative reproductive technology

Question 53

Of infants who are conceived with alternative reproductive technologies and who are born as triplets or higher order multiples, what is their chance of being born premature?

A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 52%
D) 95%

Question 54

What percentage of infants born in the United States are twins or higher multiples?

A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 7%

Question 55

From which two countries were the most number of children adopted by parents in the United States?

A) Russia and China
B) South Korea and Mexico
C) Ethiopia and Brazil
D) China and Mexico

Question 56

Adopted children are more likely to show emotional and behavioral problems especially in which developmental period?

A) toddlerhood
B) preschool
C) early adolescence
D) late adolescence

Question 57

The only known risk to infants born with the assistance of alternative reproductive technology is:

A) less warm relationships with parents.
B) the risk of being born as a multiple.
C) more genetic abnormalities.
D) adjust problems in early adolescence.

Question 58

Which is not a difference between mothers who have children using alternative reproductive technology (ART) and mothers who conceive children in the conventional manner?

A) ART mothers are more protective of their children
B) ART mothers are more emotionally involved with their children
C) ART mothers are more cognitively stimulating with their children
D) There are no differences between these groups of mothers

Question 59

The age of a zygote, embryo, or fetus, usually calculated in weeks after conception, is known as:

A) functional age.
B) gestational age.
C) prenatal age.
D) conception age.

Question 60

The prenatal development begins:

A) at the moment of conception.
B) when the zygote emerges from the fallopian tube.
C) when the zygote implants in the uterus.
D) when the placenta begins to form.

Question 61

Amy's fetus is 5 inches long. The fetus is in which prenatal period?

A) germinal period
B) gestational period
C) embryonic period
D) fetal period

Question 62

The multicell organism that grows from a fertilized ovum before implantation in the uterine wall is known as:

A) zygote.
B) blastocyst.
C) embryo.
D) fetus.

Question 63

If the conception is going to develop into identical twins the cells will separate into two groups when they are still considered a:

A) blastocyst.
B) embryo.
C) fetus.
D) zygote.

Question 64

Cells on the outside of the blastocyst that will develop into the structures that will support and protect the baby before birth.

A) embryonic disk
B) trophoblast
C) villi
D) germinal disk

Question 65

Typically, the blastocyst is fully implanted in the uterine wall within:

A) 2 days of conception.
B) 1 week of conception.
C) 2 weeks of conception.
D) hours of conception.

Question 66

What happens to the zygote if cell division does not occur normally in the germinal period?

A) The child will have serious birth defects.
B) The pregnancy will result in twins or triplets.
C) The zygote will be absorbed in the mother's body.
D) The pregnancy will end in the fetal period.

Question 67

Within a week after conception, the blastocyst will contain at least:

A) 50 cells.
B) 100 cells.
C) 200 cells.
D) 1,000 cells.

Question 68

The organ that connects the circulatory systems of mother and fetus is known as the:

A) uterus.
B) placenta.
C) umbilical Cord.
D) zygote.

Question 69

Early in prenatal development, a structure of cells is formed from the ectoderm which will eventually develop into the brain and spinal cord. This structure is known as:

A) neural plate.
B) neural tube.
C) gonodotrophin.
D) neurons.

Question 70

hCG is released by the:

A) mother's ovaries.
B) mother's pituitary glands.
C) Embryo's pituitary glands.
D) placenta.

Question 71

During the embryonic period of prenatal development, the growth of new neural cells is called:

A) aggregation.
B) pruning.
C) mylanation.
D) proliferation.

Question 72

How many weeks after conception will the brain have the shape of an adult brain?

A) about 7 weeks
B) about 12 weeks
C) about 20 weeks
D) about 28 weeks

Question 73

The sticky white cheesy covering over the skin of the fetus, which is thought to protect the skin that is exposed for many weeks to amniotic fluid is known as:

A) lanugo.
B) vernix.
C) dendrites.
D) axons.

Question 74

During the third trimester, the fetal heart rate:

A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) reflects the mothers' heart rate.
D) is very erratic.

Question 75

One of the first tests that a pregnant woman may have to measure the baby's size and position is known as:

A) amniocentesis.
B) ultrosound.
C) chorionic villus sampling.
D) nuchal translucency.

Question 76

Karen is an older mother and she is concerned with finding out if her child will have Down Syndrome. She wants the least invasive yet early test. What test could her doctor recommend for her?

A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) nuchal translucency
D) triple-screen blood test

Question 77

Which test would reveal if an infant may suffer from spina bifida?

A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) nuchal translucency
D) triple-screen blood test

Question 78

At what gestational age do fetuses begin to respond to music?

A) 10 weeks
B) 15 weeks
C) 35 weeks
D) fetuses do not respond to music

Question 79

An environmental agents that interfere with normal prenatal development is known as:

A) teratogens.
B) proteonomics.
C) choronics.
D) toxemia.

Question 80

Studies of maternal malnutrition show that:

A) effects of malnourishment may last well into adulthood.
B) it is not harmful for malnourishment to occur in the first trimester.
C) malnourishment is not a problem for families in the United States.
D) malnourishment is only related to birth weight.