Deck 20: Animal Reproduction

Question 1

An individual organism reproduced and was the only source of genetic information for the offspring. This organism could NOT have reproduced

A) sexually.
B) by parthenogenesis.
C) by cloning.
D) by budding.
E) by regeneration.

Answer 1

sexually.

Question 2

The flatworm, Dugesia sp. can be cut into halves, a head half and a tail half. Each section is capable of growing and replacing the missing portion. This is an example of

A) sexual reproduction.
B) regeneration.
C) cloning.
D) budding.
E) parthenogenesis.

Answer 2

regeneration.

Question 3

Which statement about organisms that reproduce by parthenogenesis is NOT true?

A) Parthenogenesis occurs when an unfertilised egg develops as if it had been fertilised.
B) Unfertilised eggs always develop into females.
C) Parthenogenesis produces populations that are less genetically variable.
D) Parthenogenesis has been observed in animals as advanced as some reptiles.
E) Parthenogenesis is initiated by mitosis of the haploid egg.

Answer 3

Unfertilised eggs always develop into females.

Question 4

Asexual reproduction involves

A) fusion of gametes.
B) meiosis.
C) one parent.
D) None of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Question 5

In order for parthenogenesis to occur

A) unfertilised eggs must become activated.
B) meiosis must occur without cytokinesis.
C) mitosis and cytokinesis lead to production of a diploid nucleus.
D) eggs must be fertilised.
E) None of the answers are correct.

Question 6

For an organism to reproduce sexually it is necessary

A) to have genetic variation in the population.
B) for a haploid gamete to form.
C) for mitosis to occur at some stage.
D) to have periods of asexual reproduction.
E) for fertilisation by a diploid zygote.

Question 7

An advantage of sexual reproduction is

A) a greater number of offspring can be produced.
B) novel genetic combinations may help the offspring's survival.
C) it produces better-adapted progeny.
D) it involves less energy than asexual reproduction.
E) it leads to complex life-cycles.

Question 8

Which mechanism is NOT used by hermaphroditic organisms to prevent self-fertilisation?

A) They may release male and female gametes at different times.
B) Gonads are well separated in the body.
C) Eggs and sperm mature at different times if released simultaneously.
D) Animal hermaphrodites can change sex as they mature.
E) They have complex mating to ensure fertilisation of the partner's eggs.

Question 9

In order for sexual reproduction to occur

A) unfertilised eggs develop by fusion of mitotically produced nuclei.
B) meiosis occurs without cytokinesis.
C) eggs must be fertilised.
D) zygotes undergo meiosis after fertilisation of the gametes.
E) None of the answers are correct.

Question 10

Which statement is an advantage of protandry?

A) Females get to turn into males.
B) Eggs are small, with minimal yolk.
C) As sperm are small, small males can produce enough sperm for fertilisation.
D) It ensures survival of the species through self-fertilisation.
E) An animal gets to be both sexes in one lifetime.

Question 11

Indirect development occurs only in

A) butterflies.
B) aquatic animals with external fertilisation.
C) terrestrial animals with internal fertilisation.
D) frogs.
E) None of the answers are correct.

Question 12

Which of the following is a cost of direct internal development?

A) A reduction in parental body reserves.
B) Decreased parental mobility and foraging ability.
C) Increased risk of predation.
D) Smaller number of eggs.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Question 13

The region of the reproductive tract where eutherian embryos develop is the

A) ovary.
B) uterus.
C) testis.
D) placenta.
E) urethra.

Question 14

The Port Jackson shark, Heterodontus portjacksoni, reproduces through internal fertilisation. Initial embryonic development is internal with each embryo surrounded by an egg case. These capsules are then laid into the external environment where development continues until hatching. This is similar to the reproductive pattern of which mammals?

A) Humans.
B) Marsupials.
C) Monotremes
D) Eutherians.
E) None. The shark has a unique reproduction.

Question 15

Most eutherians have

A) short gestation periods and long lactation periods.
B) short gestation periods and short lactation periods.
C) long gestation periods and long lactation periods.
D) long gestation periods and short lactation periods.
E) yolk-rich eggs and a short gestation.

Question 16

Normal sperm formation is assisted by the

A) production of millions of sperm.
B) secretions of secondary sex glands.
C) testes temperature maintained below normal body temperature.
D) production of nutrient-rich seminal fluid.
E) the contraction of muscles at ejaculation.

Question 17

How many cylinders of erectile tissue does the human penis have?

A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 1.
D) 0.
E) 4.

Question 18

In human females, newly ovulated eggs are collected by the

A) ovary.
B) uterus.
C) oviduct.
D) fallopian tubes.
E) cervix.

Question 19

Amplexus refers to the

A) internal fertilisation that occurs in birds.
B) external fertilisation that occurs in frogs.
C) cross-fertilisation that occurs in earthworms.
D) simultaneous spawning of corals that occurs on the Great Barrier Reef.
E) delayed development of the embryo in marsupials until the pouch is empty.

Question 20

A delay in embryonic development is called

A) suppression.
B) gestation.
C) diapause.
D) menopause.
E) amplexus.

Question 21

In species of hard coral such as Acropora sp., the sexual reproductive component of the life cycle provides

A) local growth.
B) a mechanism for decreasing the genetic diversity of offspring.
C) a mechanism for dispersal.
D) food for other animal species.
E) None of the answers are correct.

Question 22

Which one of the following statements is NOT a function of sex hormones?

A) Sex hormones regulate the development of gametes.
B) Sex hormones provide nutrition for gametes.
C) Sex hormones produce sexual differences in appearance.
D) Sex hormones act as pheromones.
E) Sex hormones regulate the development of sex organs.

Question 23

Primordial germ cells

A) are relatively numerous in the developing embryo.
B) develop near the site of their final location.
C) proliferate by meiotic division.
D) develop into somatic cells.
E) have the ability to give rise to cells that will form gametes.

Question 24

In oogenesis

A) the primary oocyte divides symmetrically to produce two equal secondary oocytes.
B) polar bodies differentiate to form functional eggs.
C) the oogonium is produced by meiosis.
D) the secondary oocyte divides asymmetrically to produce an egg and a non-functional polar body.
E) the primary oocyte undergoes meiosis to produce an oocyte and a polar body.

Question 25

In spermatogenesis four haploid spermatids are formed by

A) differentiation of the sperm cells.
B) meiotic division of the secondary spermatocyte.
C) meiotic division of the primary spermatocyte.
D) asymmetric cell division of spermatogonia.
E) proliferation of the spermatogonia.

Question 26

In mammals, the oocyte is surrounded by

A) polar bodies.
B) the zona pellucida.
C) follicle cells.
D) vitelline membrane.
E) nurse cells.

Question 27

The first diploid cell formed after fertilisation is called the

A) embryo.
B) foetus.
C) zygote.
D) gamete.
E) blastula.

Question 28

Egg activation

A) occurs when the acrosomal vesicle bursts.
B) occurs when the plasma membranes of the sperm and egg fuse.
C) is when there is a change in the permeability of the egg membrane and a decrease in intracellular Ca²⁺.
D) is characterised by a temporary cessation in protein synthesis by the egg.
E) does not occur until the pronuclei fuse.

Question 29

Additional sperm are prevented from fusing with an egg by

A) increased calcium concentration.
B) DNA activation.
C) commencement of embryonic development.
D) changes in sodium permeability.
E) hydrolytic activity of the enzymes released from the acrosomal vesicle.

Question 30

In many animals, excluding mammals, the contribution of sperm to the genetics of early embryonic development is minimal. In these examples, egg development stops at which stage?

A) Zygote.
B) Blastula.
C) Embryo.
D) Gamete.
E) Gastrula.

Question 31

Gametogenesis is

A) a sequence of biological modifications leading to the production of sperm.
B) production of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes by mitotic division.
C) the process of sexual reproduction in animals.
D) the asexual reproduction seen in some animals dependent on environmental conditions.
E) the asymmetric cell division of the primary oocyte.

Question 32

The structure of a mature human sperm cells contains all of the following, EXCEPT

A) acrosomal vesicle.
B) mitochondrion.
C) tail of microtubules.
D) centriole.
E) seminiferous vesicle.

Question 33

As the mammal egg matures it is surrounded by several extracellular membranes including the

A) vitelline membrane.
B) zona pellucida.
C) jelly coat.
D) chalaza.
E) shell.

Question 34

The process of fertilisation in the sea urchin involves

A) binding of the sperm to the egg; release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm; movement of the whole sperm into the egg cytoplasm.
B) formation of the acrosomal process to the vitelline membrane; release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm; penetration of the sperm head into the cytoplasm of the egg.
C) binding of the sperm to the plasma membrane of the egg; release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm; penetration of the sperm head into the cytoplasm of the egg.
D) binding of the sperm to the plasma membrane of the egg; release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm; movement of the whole sperm into the egg cytoplasm.
E) interaction between the sperm and the jelly coat of the egg; release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm; movement of the sperm head into the egg cytoplasm.

Question 35

Sexual reproduction

A) requires the production of a haploid gamete formed by meiosis.
B) involves the redistribution of the parental genes into offspring.
C) uses a variety of adaptation of ensure successful fertilisation.
D) requires only one individual in dioecious species.
E) imposes a significant energy burden on an animal.

Question 36

Characteristics of parthenogenesis include

A) reproduction involving only mitosis.
B) individual animals that are able to produce both sexually and asexually.
C) sexual reproduction in response to environmental stress.
D) production of sperm in the testes.
E) the ability of an animal to change sex during its life.

Question 37

When an egg and sperm cell membranes fuse, what term describes the process whereby the sperm pronucleus passes into the egg cytoplasm and joins the egg pronucleus?

A) Karyogamy
B) Telophase
C) Gametogenesis
D) Syngamy
E) Acromagy

Question 38

Which of the following is the process of syngamy that occurs during fertilisation in humans?

A) Two pronuclei become closely apposed but do not fuse.
B) Egg and sperm genomes combine after nuclear membranes degrade but post initial mitosis.
C) Two pronuclei fuse to from a single nucleated zygote.
D) Two pronuclei partially fuse to form a single zygote, but with two unfused nuclei.
E) All of the options listed here are incorrect.

Question 39

In human fertilisation, approximately how long is the period of time between entry of the sperm pronucleus into the egg and merging of the two pronuclear genomes after breakdown of the pronuclear envelopes?

A) 6 hours
B) 14 hours
C) 30 hours
D) 9 hours
E) 20 hours

Question 40

A fish of unknown species and origin is delivered to a laboratory to assess its basic physical characteristics such as weight, length and sex to determine if it is suitable for a study. Weeks later, the fish is reassessed to measure its progress since entering the lab. The new assessor determines the fish is female, whereas the initial assessor determined the fish to be a male. Given both assessors are experienced and competent, what could be a likely reason for this apparent contradiction?

A) Protogyny
B) Protandry
C) Pseudohypoparagametogenesis
D) Dimorphogenesis
E) Dysmorphogyny

Question 41

Budding involves

A) pullulating gametes that accumulate in lobes on the gonads.
B) sporogenesis in outgrowths on males that lyse to release sperm into the environment.
C) fertilisation in autonomous sacs that are attached to individuals by thin strands of tissue.
D) the development of a new individual organism from outgrowths that form on a parent organism.
E) the development of eggs and embryos from outgrowths.

Question 42

An unknown organism is observed to release a large number of very small eggs. Soon after being released, the eggs hatch and release organisms that are morphologically dissimilar to the parent. This organism must therefore use what type of reproductive strategy?

A) direct development.
B) protandrous.
C) parthenogenesis.
D) regeneration.
E) indirect development.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a shared feature of the reproductive strategies of eutherians and monotremes?

A) Egg formation
B) Lactation dependant young
C) Internal fertilisation
D) Small number of offspring
E) Give birth to living young

Question 44

A human male of reproductive age spends much of his time engaging with females on dating websites, trying to lure potential mates. However, as he has no internet access at his home, he must conduct this behaviour at his work. If he were to be caught doing this in work time using work resources he would very likely be sacked. This is, therefore, an example of:

A) reproductive success.
B) dispersal.
C) protandry.
D) protogyny.
E) reproductive effort.

Question 45

In gametogenesis, the process of oogenesis refers to the formation of

A) eggs.
B) sperm.
C) embryo.
D) spores.
E) blastoderm.