Deck 6: Parole and Prisoner Reentry

Question 1

Which stage of Maconochie's marks system emphasized punishment and included solitary confinement and a diet of bread and water?

A) social stage
B) associated stage
C) ticket of leave
D) penal stage

Answer 1

penal stage

Question 2

Which of the following early forms of parole originated on Norfolk Island in the nineteenth century and allowed the release of prisoners who had proven themselves through work and good behavior?

A) open institution
B) leave system
C) prisoner reentry
D) ticket of leave

Answer 2

ticket of leave

Question 3

Which nineteenth-century director of the Irish prison system created a four-stage system of graduated release from prison?

A) Alexander Maconochie
B) Andrew von Hirsch
C) Zebulon R. Brockway
D) Sir Walter Crofton

Answer 3

Sir Walter Crofton

Question 4

What was the first stage of the Irish system of release?

A) ticket of leave
B) solitary confinement
C) special prison
D) open institution

Question 5

Which U.S. penologist advocated the Irish system in the United States and became the first superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory?

A) Sir Walter Crofton
B) Sanford Bates
C) Zebulon R. Brockway
D) Alexander Maconochie

Question 6

Which law, enacted by the British Parliament in 1853, enabled prisoners to be released into the community and supervised by the police?

A) Penal Servitude Act
B) Parole Commission and Reorganization Act
C) Second Chance Act
D) Prison Litigation Reform Act

Question 7

Which of the following calls for fixed sentences so that the punishment fits the crime?

A) just deserts model
B) discretionary parole
C) justice model
D) salient factor score

Question 8

Which of the following was created as a means to reduce disparity and make decision making more understandable to the public and inmates?

A) positive contact
B) unconditional mandatory release
C) parole guidelines
D) salient factor score

Question 9

Which of the following is a point determination for each inmate for use with parole guidelines?

A) guideline range
B) guidelines table
C) salient factor score
D) inmate score

Question 10

Which of the following is one of the three major steps in the sentencing and release processes for discretionary parole?

A) a determinate sentence with a set time to serve before parole eligibility
B) consideration of release by the warden
C) supervision in the community under specific conditions
D) parole decision is communicated to the inmate in writing through the prison staff

Question 11

What is the release of inmates after they have served a determinate sentence, but with a period of supervision in the community, known as?

A) supervised mandatory release
B) unconditional mandatory release
C) discretionary parole
D) post release control

Question 12

Which of the following classifications pertaining to "supervision and conditions of parole" requires three contacts per month with at least one positive contact?

A) intensive
B) basic low
C) basic medium
D) basic high

Question 13

How many contacts per month with at least one positive contact does a basic low classification pertaining to "supervision and conditions of parole" require?

A) none
B) one
C) two
D) five

Question 14

Which of the following was the ruling in the Gagnon v. Scarpelli case in 1973?

A) Full due process rights need to be afforded for a parolee.
B) Parole is legally considered a privilege and not a right.
C) A parole officer must determine whether counsel shall be provided to the parolee.
D) Parolees have a limited right to counsel.

Question 15

Which step occurs during the formal revocation of parole process?

A) preliminary revocation hearing
B) trial by jury
C) appointment of counsel
D) determination of a violation by a judge

Question 16

Which document does a parole officer write when a parole violation occurs and the offender does NOT cooperate or absconds from supervision?

A) salient factor score
B) full revocation
C) ticket of leave
D) notice of violation

Question 17

Which 1972 Supreme Court decision set forth that once parole is granted, offenders must have certain due process to revoke that liberty?

A) Gagnon v. Scarpelli
B) Morrissey v. Brewer
C) Bell v. Wolfish
D) Greenholtz v. Inmates of the Nebraska Penal and Correctional Complex

Question 18

Which is one of Petersilia's six collateral consequences of imprisonment?

A) recidivism
B) prison overcrowding
C) drug abuse
D) homelessness

Question 19

How is prisoner reentry different today compared to a few decades ago?

A) Prisoners are serving significantly shorter prison terms.
B) Fewer offenders are released from prisons than in the past.
C) Most inmates receive the benefit of extensive rehabilitation programs or prerelease programs.
D) Communities to which prisoners return are more disorganized and their families less supportive.

Question 20

What should a parole officer's first step be if he or she thinks a parolee has failed to adhere to a technical condition of parole supervision?

A) make a warrant for arrest and custody
B) create a notice of violation
C) create a stipulated agreement
D) make a determination of a violation

Question 21

Which of the following is one of the ways the 2007 Second Chance Act proposed to ease the reentry process for individuals leaving prison?

A) by providing rehabilitative treatment
B) by providing less harsh sentences
C) by providing parole to those leaving prison
D) by providing more personal liberty to the prisoners

Question 22

What is a purpose of reentry courts?

A) to oversee an offender's transition to the community
B) to create mentor programs for adults and juveniles leaving prison
C) to educate and give job training in prison
D) to treat drug addicts during and after incarceration

Question 23

During the 1900s, prisoners served set amounts of time in crowded prisons, with little emphasis on rehabilitation or preparation for release.

Question 24

By 1944, all states had adopted the use of parole and indeterminate sentences.

Question 25

The Great Depression helped to expand the use of parole, as more people were sent to prison because of unemployment and Prohibition.

Question 26

After World War II, the retributive model of corrections was adopted as the dominant theory influencing prison practices.

Question 27

In the 1979 case Greenholtz v. Inmates of the Nebraska Penal and Correctional Complex, the Supreme Court determined that parole was legally a privilege and not a right.

Question 28

An important feature in the organization of parole decision-making is that the parole board is independent from prison administrators.

Question 29

Hearing procedures are the same in every state.

Question 30

The length of parole supervision following release from prison is never more than a year.

Question 31

Parole offenders may waive the preliminary hearing and proceed to the full revocation hearing.

Question 32

Most offenders today serve a determinate sentence that is much longer than in the past.

Question 33

Employment is key to successful reentry.

Question 34

A large percentage of inmates receive extensive rehabilitation and prerelease programs.

Question 35

Maconochie's mark system allowed for inmates to be released once they earned the required level of marks through work and good behavior.

Question 36

The prison staff generally make a recommendation regarding parole in most states.

Question 37

Special conditions of parole are similar to special conditions of probation.

Question 38

Transitional employment programs provide subsidized work to current prisoners with close supervision, mentoring, and on-the-job training.

Question 39

In Maconochie's mark system, during the initial penal stage of incarceration inmates could begin to earn marks through work, program participation, and good behavior.

Question 40

________ is the conditional release of inmates prior to the expiration of their sentence.

Question 41

The superintendent of the British penal colony on Norfolk Island who created a system of marks for good behavior that could lead to a graduated release from prison was Alexander ________.

Question 42

The ________ system was a system of credits against a sentence that allowed inmates to be released once they earned the required number through work and good behavior.

Question 43

Opened in 1876, the first reformatory in the United States was the ________ Reformatory.

Question 44

The ________ model for sentencing proposed by David Fogel would use flat, determinate sentences, eliminate parole boards, and make all treatment voluntary.

Question 45

________ parole is granted when the decision to release the offender is made by a parole board.

Question 46

________ guidelines are similar to sentencing guidelines and use predictive factors to determine offenders' risk to the community and chance for success.

Question 47

The ________ parole date is the date on which the inmate can expect to be released on parole.

Question 48

In some states, ________ officers conduct parole hearings and recommend decisions to the parole board.

Question 49

________ factor score is the score based on factors predictive of success on parole.

Question 50

________ contact is face-to-face contact between a parole officer and an offender.

Question 51

________ officers are the line-level employees responsible for supervising parolees in the community from the time of their release until they either successfully leave supervision or have their parole revoked.

Question 52

Failure to follow conditions of parole supervision is known as a(n) ________.

Question 53

The process by which an inmate leaves prison and returns to the community is known as prisoner ________.

Question 54

If the offender agrees that he or she has made a technical parole violation, the officer writes a report that is referred to as a(n) ________ agreement.

Question 55

Match the term affiliated with parole with the correct definition.

-Justice model

A) Use of determinate sentencing with no option for parole
B) Fixed sentencing model
C) Inmates serve a determinate sentence but follow with period of supervision
D) Release of inmate by parole board
E) Inmates serve full portion of sentence then are released with no supervision

Question 56

Match the term affiliated with parole with the correct definition.

-Just deserts model

A) Use of determinate sentencing with no option for parole
B) Fixed sentencing model
C) Inmates serve a determinate sentence but follow with period of supervision
D) Release of inmate by parole board
E) Inmates serve full portion of sentence then are released with no supervision

Question 57

Match the term affiliated with parole with the correct definition.

-Discretionary parole

A) Use of determinate sentencing with no option for parole
B) Fixed sentencing model
C) Inmates serve a determinate sentence but follow with period of supervision
D) Release of inmate by parole board
E) Inmates serve full portion of sentence then are released with no supervision

Question 58

Match the term affiliated with parole with the correct definition.

-Supervised mandatory release

A) Use of determinate sentencing with no option for parole
B) Fixed sentencing model
C) Inmates serve a determinate sentence but follow with period of supervision
D) Release of inmate by parole board
E) Inmates serve full portion of sentence then are released with no supervision

Question 59

Match the term affiliated with parole with the correct definition.

-Unconditional mandatory release

A) Use of determinate sentencing with no option for parole
B) Fixed sentencing model
C) Inmates serve a determinate sentence but follow with period of supervision
D) Release of inmate by parole board
E) Inmates serve full portion of sentence then are released with no supervision

Question 60

Explain Maconochie's mark system and its relationship to current day parole.

Question 61

Explain the calculation a salient factor score.

Question 62

How does moving away from indeterminate sentencing affect the use of parole?

Question 63

Describe how due process is applied to offenders during the parole process.