Deck 12: Managing Chronic Conditions

Question 1

In general, which of the following most clearly distinguishes a chronic disease from an acute disease?

A) severity
B) survival rate
C) speed of development
D) part of the body affected

Answer 1

speed of development

Question 2

Klinefelter's syndrome occurs when

A) an extra sex chromosome occurs in a fertilized ovum.
B) a sex chromosome is missing from a fertilized ovum.
C) an extra autosome occurs in a fertilized ovum.
D) an autosome is missing from a fertilized ovum.

Answer 2

an extra sex chromosome occurs in a fertilized ovum.

Question 3

A chromosome profile of 44XX indicates which of the following?

A) a normal male
B) a normal female
C) a female with Turner's syndrome
D) a male with Klinefelter's syndrome

Answer 3

a normal female

Question 4

Which of the following is FALSE of women with Turner's syndrome? They

A) are born with two X chromosomes.
B) are infertile.
C) have diminished secondary sex characteristics.
D) have a missing X chromosome.

Question 5

The major symptoms of cystic fibrosis include

A) digestive and respiratory difficulties.
B) progressive brain deterioration.
C) mental retardation.
D) gradual paralysis.

Question 6

The pancreas and other structures that secrete substances through ducts are called ____ glands.

A) endocrine
B) exocrine
C) lymph
D) cystic

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a symptom related to cystic fibrosis?

A) respiratory system problems
B) enlarged fingertips
C) the ability to control mucus production
D) digestive system problems

Question 8

Your cousin has a chronic disorder that requires daily respiratory therapy, drugs, and a special diet. He most likely has

A) muscular dystrophy.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) Down syndrome.
D) cystic fibrosis.

Question 9

A new technique that attempts to cure a chronic disease by introducing healthy genes into a person with a genetic disorder is called

A) gene replacement therapy.
B) genetic palliative therapy.
C) genetic alleviation.
D) gene splicing.

Question 10

Many inherited disorders are recessive, which means that the genes that cause them are

A) rare.
B) carried by both parents.
C) not revealed in every generation.
D) only found in about one out of four family members.

Question 11

Sickle-cell disease is most prominent in

A) Hispanic Americans.
B) African Americans.
C) Eastern European Jews.
D) Caucasians.

Question 12

People with sickle-cell disease may live to reach _____ years of age.

A) 30
B) 85
C) 50
D) 75

Question 13

You are a carrier of the sickle-cell gene. How will this affect your health?

A) It will shorten your life expectancy.
B) It will have almost no effect on your health.
C) You will be susceptible to frequent infections.
D) You will have one chance in four of developing sickle-cell disease.

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a serious medical problem associated with sickle-cell disease?

A) anemia
B) congestive heart failure
C) gall bladder infections
D) abdominal bloating

Question 15

In sickle-cell disease, the characteristic sickle-shaped cells are

A) genetic flaws in certain types of white blood cells.
B) congenital abnormalities in blood vessel walls.
C) elongated and unable to pass through the body's minute capillaries.
D) cancerous cells in the bone marrow.

Question 16

A form of dementia caused by the gradual loss of brain function is referred to as

A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) Crohn's disease.
D) Turner's syndrome

Question 17

Anterior vertebral stapling is a procedure used in those cases of scoliosis in which

A) the curvature is 45 degrees or less.
B) the curvature is 45 degrees or more.
C) the curvature is 30 degrees or less.
D) This procedure is not currently used in the treatment of scoliosis.

Question 18

In human embryos, most development and differentiation of tissues and organs is complete by_______________ after fertilization.

A) eight days
B) three weeks
C) six weeks
D) three months

Question 19

Which of the following is FALSE regarding congenital abnormalities?

A) No single factor is responsible for congenital abnormalities.
B) They are solely caused by environmental factors.
C) Inappropriate changes in tissue during the embryonic development cause congenital abnormalities.
D) They are generally formed early in pregnancy.

Question 20

Which of the following is the BEST example of a congenital abnormality?

A) a spontaneous abortion
B) an inherited blood disorder
C) cystic fibrosis
D) a cleft palate

Question 21

What are the most significant risks of refusing to get medical treatment for a cleft palate?

A) The risks are mainly cosmetic.
B) Speech and eating difficulties are likely.
C) The tissue around the brain is at high risk of infection.
D) The condition can worsen and become life-threatening.

Question 22

Your doctor reports that your newborn infant has a condition called patent foramen ovale. What is most likely to happen now?

A) The child will probably die within hours.
B) Chances are good that no special treatment will be needed.
C) Corrective surgery will be performed before the child leaves the hospital.
D) The child will probably need supplemental oxygen for the first three months of life.

Question 23

A recent scuba diving incident brought to your attention that you had an undiagnosed patent foramen ovale. Most interesting to you was the fact that

A) you should never have been able to compete in school sports.
B) it is difficult for doctors to miss this diagnosis in newborns.
C) you should have died in infancy.
D) this condition could increase the risk of decompression illness.

Question 24

Fifteen-year-old Rodney has a pronounced twist in his backbone that seems to get worse as he grows. He probably has

A) spina bifida.
B) thoracica.
C) scoliosis.
D) talipes.

Question 25

Children with scoliosis should

A) be screened every 6-9 months until growth of the spine slows and then stops.
B) have corrective surgery as soon as possible.
C) not be concerned as most children grow out of it.
D) wear a brace even when the there is only a minor curvature (less than 10 degrees).

Question 26

Your adolescent son has been diagnosed with scoliosis. The degree of curvature is 34 degrees. What treatment will most likely be recommended?

A) a brace
B) exercise therapy
C) surgical correction
D) no immediate treatment, but monitoring at six-month intervals

Question 27

Both major types of diabetes occur because of

A) too much sugar in the blood.
B) too much insulin in the blood.
C) the body's insensitivity to insulin.
D) the body's inability to regulate blood sugar.

Question 28

Hyperglycemia occurs when

A) the blood contains an abnormally low amount of glucose.
B) excessive amounts of glucose accumulate in the blood.
C) abnormal quantities of glucose pour into cells.
D) the body cannot produce enough insulin.

Question 29

One of the major warning signs of type 2 diabetes is

A) kidney failure.
B) abdominal pain.
C) increased thirst.
D) a craving for sweets.

Question 30

Which organ produces insulin?

A) pancreas
B) liver
C) kidneys
D) large intestines

Question 31

Type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes occurs when the

A) body becomes insensitive to insulin.
B) body loses its ability to produce insulin.
C) pancreas starts to release an ineffective form of insulin.
D) body develops a hypersensitivity to insulin and excretes most of it in the urine.

Question 32

The cause of type 1 diabetes is the destruction of insulin-producing sites by

A) a viral infection.
B) mutated pancreatic cells.
C) one's own immune system.
D) excessive levels of blood glucose.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a means for people with type 1 diabetes to take their insulin?

A) injection
B) nasal inhalation
C) dietary supplements
D) transdermal patches

Question 34

Your friend Hal recently developed type 1 diabetes. He takes his insulin as prescribed, but he will not stop smoking or stay on the diet his doctor recommended. What is the MOST likely scenario? He could

A) rapidly become obese.
B) make the disease worse.
C) begin to lose bone and muscle mass.
D) develop an insensitivity to the insulin.

Question 35

A chronic condition of low blood sugar that is not caused by diabetes is called

A) glucose intolerance.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) insulin debt.

Question 36

A rare form of hypoglycemia is called ______________ hypoglycemia.

A) reactive
B) selective
C) specific
D) relative

Question 37

John is experiencing mild confusion, low energy level, and tremors. He has symptoms of

A) hyperglycemia.
B) insulin reaction.
C) insulin sensitivity.
D) hypoglycemia.

Question 38

Your aches and pains will be diagnosed as fibromyalgia if

A) they do not respond to anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) they do not disappear within a few weeks.
C) they occur at certain specific locations.
D) the thyroid dysfunctions.

Question 39

For most people, extrinsic asthma attacks are triggered by

A) stress.
B) allergens.
C) infections.
D) genetic signals.

Question 40

What happens during an asthma attack?

A) Airways in the lungs tighten and restrict air flow.
B) Involuntary muscle contractions in the chest cavity prevent the lungs from filling.
C) Gas exchange in the lungs is hampered by excessive levels of hormones in the blood.
D) Hemoglobin in the victim's blood suddenly becomes less efficient at oxygen transport.

Question 41

The best approach to managing your asthma is to

A) avoid vigorous exercise, cold air, and dust.
B) avoid stressful situations whenever possible.
C) take advantage of immunotherapy and corticosteroids.
D) learn what triggers your attacks and create an individual plan.

Question 42

It has recently been discovered that people who suffer from diabetes are more likely to develop which of the following disorders?

A) Parkinson's disease
B) cystic fibrosis
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) Crohn's disease

Question 43

One method for monitoring diabetes involves measuring the amount of glycated hemoglobin in the blood.
A reading above 7 mg/dl indicates

A) glucose intolerance.
B) that it is within normal measures.
C) insulin sensitivity.
D) that it is borderline high.

Question 44

The primary function of the drug Lyrica, used in the treatment of fibromyalgia, is to

A) decrease pain.
B) increase energy levels.
C) decrease anxiety.
D) enhance the quality of sleep.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of the advanced stage of Alzheimer's disease?

A) loss of bladder function
B) infantile behavior
C) loss of bowel function
D) mild depression

Question 46

Type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus causes glucose levels in the blood to rise.

Question 47

In type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin.

Question 48

To date, there has been no correlation between the use of pesticides and the incidence of Parkinson's disease.

Question 49

Without proper management, diabetes can lead to premature death.

Question 50

Fibromyalgia has symptoms that might not be diagnosed and treated despite years of discomfort.

Question 51

An asthma attack occurs when the alveoli in the lungs fill with fluid.

Question 52

The use of bone marrow stem cells has had no impact on the treatment of MS.

Question 53

In an autoimmune disorder, the immune system attacks the body's own tissues.

Question 54

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that occurs primarily among men.

Question 55

Multiple sclerosis is marked by the deterioration of nerve cells.

Question 56

Parkinson's disease is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of nerves.

Question 57

Whether a patient has Alzheimer's disease cannot be completely confirmed before death.

Question 58

Describe the etiology of congenital abnormalities.

Question 59

Describe the similarities and differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Question 60

Discuss the ways in which you can provide comfort and care to someone suffering from a chronic illness. In what ways can you assure them that they are not alone or forgotten?

Question 61

Describe methods to manage asthma.

Question 62

Describe the progress of Alzheimer's disease.