Deck 3: Prenatal Development and Birth

Question 1

Genes are

A) determinants of behavior.
B) segments of chromosomes.
C) gametes.
D) part of the fallopian tube.

Answer 1

segments of chromosomes.

Question 2

All cells in the human body, except for the sperm and the egg, have_________pairs of chromosomes.

A) 2
B) 4
C) 23
D) 46

Answer 2

23

Question 3

When the 23rd chromosome contains an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. This indicates that

A) the person has an autosomal syndrome.
B) is male.
C) may develop sickle-cell.
D) has Turner's Syndrome.

Answer 3

is male.

Question 4

The difference between male and female lies on which pair of chromosomes?

A) 23rd
B) 18th
C) 3rd
D) 16th

Question 5

A single cell is created after fertilization of the egg by a sperm. This is known as a(n)

A) gamete.
B) gonad.
C) embryo.
D) zygote.

Question 6

Chromosomes are made of

A) DNA.
B) gametes.
C) gonads.
D) source traits.

Question 7

_________are the 22 pairs of chromosomes which are not involved in sex determination.

A) Gametes
B) Autosomes
C) Zygotes
D) Gonads

Question 8

Responsibility for development of male physical characteristics is on the Y chromosome. The particular gene is the

A) homozygous gene.
B) polygenic gene.
C) gamete gene.
D) SRY gene.

Question 9

The determining factor in developing male genitalia is

A) the Y chromosome.
B) the SRY gene.
C) androgen.
D) the gonads.

Question 10

Females are to_________ as males are to_________ .

A) ovaries; testes
B) ovaries; the SRY gene
C) zygote; testes
D) androgens; testes

Question 11

Regardless of sex chromosome, xx or xy, if a embryo does not receive androgens, physical development will be

A) male.
B) female.
C) undetermined.
D) disordered.

Question 12

As male embryos require androgens to develop male characteristics regardless of carrying the XY chromosome, it can be argued that development is

A) undifferentiated.
B) dependent on the Y chromosome.
C) female.
D) male.

Question 13

A condition called congenital adrenal hyperplasia causes a female embryo

A) to develop an extra x chromosome.
B) to activate the SRY gene.
C) to eliminate 23rd chromosome.
D) to be exposed to androgens.

Question 14

Early in her pregnancy, Mary used medication that included androgens, which in turn influenced her female embryo. This exposure could cause

A) male-appearing genitalia.
B) the SRY gene to release androgens.
C) increased ova production.
D) an extra 21st chromosome.

Question 15

Most multiple births are

A) identical twins.
B) fraternal twins.
C) triplets.
D) monozygotic twins.

Question 16

Monozygotic is to_________ as dizygotic is to .

A) identical; fraternal
B) identical; congenital
C) fraternal; identical
D) multiple; single

Question 17

Monozygotic twins occur when a single zygote splits into two. Therefore, these twins

A) are the same sex.
B) have different genes.
C) are the same as fraternal twins.
D) occur in about 4/100 births.

Question 18

Because identical twins share the same genetic information, they have been the focus of many studies. Research on identical twins can provide insight into which of the following developmental issue?

A) Continuity versus Discontinuity
B) Active versus Passive
C) Stages versus Stability
D) Nature versus Nurture

Question 19

Women over 35 are more likely than younger women to deliver multiple births. One of the reasons for this is

A) women over 35 are more likely to have split zygotes.
B) women over 35 are more likely to employ fertility technology.
C) women under 35 have fewer ova.
D) women under 35 are less reproductive viable.

Question 20

The Bartoks have been married for 10 years. Both are now 40. They have tried for 5 years to conceive, but have been unsuccessful. They have consulted a reputable fertility specialist. She informs the Bartoks that fertility drugs and other techniques

A) could result in multiple births.
B) have a 100% success rate.
C) have the same rate of multiples as naturally conceived births.
D) have a lower miscarriage rate.

Question 21

Characteristics of the phenotype can be both_________ and_________ .

A) physical; social
B) physical; psychological
C) dominant; active
D) identical; social

Question 22

An individual's phenotype will always display a characteristic if that trait is

A) singular.
B) heterozygous.
C) polygenic.
D) dominant.

Question 23

Carol has bright red hair. This is a recessive trait. Therefore,_________ red hair.

A) both her parents have
B) her siblings will have
C) both of her parents carried a recessive gene for
D) her mother had a dominant gene for

Question 24

If an individual carries either two dominant or two recessive genes they are said to be

A) homozygous.
B) heterozygous.
C) dominant.
D) polygenic.

Question 25

You are admiring John's dimples. They are an example of John's

A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) recessive gene.
D) polygenic.

Question 26

Both of Suzette's parents have dark hair. Suzette has blonde hair. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A) Each of her parents must have a recessive gene for blonde hair.
B) Suzette is adopted.
C) Suzette's mother has two dominant genes for dark hair.
D) Suzette's hair must be dyed.

Question 27

Eye color is an example of

A) multi-factorial inheritance.
B) polygenic inheritance.
C) dominant inheritance.
D) recessive inheritance.

Question 28

When genes have different influences on the developing genotype depending on whether they are inherited from the mother or the father, this process is called

A) dominant patterning.
B) recessive patterning.
C) genomic imprinting.
D) homozygous imprinting.

Question 29

Mitochondrial inheritance occurs only

A) from mother to child.
B) with polygenic factors.
C) with in vitro fertilization.
D) with genomic imprinting.

Question 30

The effects of certain genes depend on whether they are inherited from the mother or father.
This is called

A) polygenic inheritance.
B) phenotype.
C) genomic imprinting.
D) recessive patterning.

Question 31

You are reading the local newspaper when you notice an article that states researchers have discovered the gene for shyness. You smile as you remember the information you learned in your child development class that this cannot be totally accurate because shyness is due to

A) genomic imprinting.
B) dominance pattern inheritance.
C) recessive pattern inheritance.
D) multi-factorial inheritance.

Question 32

Most psychological traits result from _________inheritance.

A) recessive
B) dominance
C) mitochondrial
D) multi-factorial

Question 33

Rutter has proposed five general principles concerning how genes and the environment interact in producing psychological, personality, and physical differences. One of these principles is that individuals may process information and experiences differently. This is similar to the general developmental principle of

A) nature.
B) inborn biases.
C) nurture.
D) internal models of experience.

Question 34

Mr. Phillips, the kindergarten teacher, observed that Carlos enjoyed the music component of the class. At free-chosen activity time, Carlos always selected the musical instruments or listening to CDs. When asked to recommend children who might benefit from a special music program, Mr. Phillips recommended Carlos. Carlos's demonstration of an interest in music is an example of which of Rutter's general principles of multi-factorial inheritance?

A) Individual differ in their response to the environment.
B) There is a reciprocal relationship between individuals and their environments.
C) Individuals select and shape their environments.
D) People are active in their environments.

Question 35

Many recessive disorders are associated with ethnicity. One such disorder which occurs in 1/650 African Americans in the United States is

A) PKU.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) Sickle-cell disease.
D) Cystic fibrosis.

Question 36

Donner was born with a recessive autosomal disorder. He was tested at birth and is not permitted to consume any milk products. In most probability, Donner has

A) Tay-Sachs disease.
B) sickle-cell disease.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) PKU.

Question 37

Tonya and Jake are both Jewish of Eastern European descent. They are planning to marry and want to have children. They are good candidates for genetic counseling for _________disease.

A) PKU
B) Tay-Sachs
C) sickle-cell disease
D) cystic fibrosis

Question 38

The most common trisomy disorder is _________syndrome.

A) Klinefelter's
B) Turner's
C) Fragile X
D) Down

Question 39

Fragile X syndrome is diagnosed most frequently in

A) females.
B) males.
C) Eastern European Jews.
D) African-Americans.

Question 40

Alberto was diagnosed with mental retardation when he was 5. He is now 10 and the disorder has worsened over time. It is likely that Alberto has_________ disorder.

A) Fragile X
B) Tay-Sachs
C) sickle-cell
D) Huntington's

Question 41

Sabrina has facial features much like other children with this disorder. She has been diagnosed with mental retardation and has heart problems. Sabrina has

A) Klinefelter's syndrome.
B) Turner's syndrome.
C) XXX syndrome.
D) Down syndrome.

Question 42

Which of the following women has the highest probability of bearing a Down syndrome child?

A) Geena who is 25
B) Lori who is 30
C) Halie who is 33
D) Lila who is 45

Question 43

Klinefelter's Syndrome occurs in

A) males.
B) females.
C) both sexes.
D) African Americans.

Question 44

Barry demonstrates no unusual physical characteristics. He has a reading disability. His parents were told that at puberty he will demonstrate breast development as well as typical male characteristics. Barry most likely has been diagnosed with

A) Turner's syndrome.
B) Fragile X.
C) Down syndrome.
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.

Question 45

Maria has below average math scores. She performs at grade-level in language arts. She is shorter than her peers. Her parents have been told that Maria will not undergo puberty unless she has hormone treatments. Maria most likely has been diagnosed with

A) Down syndrome.
B) Turner's syndrome.
C) Klinefelter's syndrome.
D) Fragile X syndrome.

Question 46

_________syndrome is a sex chromosome anomaly which occurs in females.

A) Down
B) Fragile X
C) XXY
D) Turner's

Question 47

In contrast to prenatal development, pregnancy is divided into

A) three equal trimesters.
B) three gestational stages.
C) personal experiences.
D) three fetal periods.

Question 48

Johanna has been sick to her stomach every morning. She missed her last period and her breasts have become tender. Johanna is probably in the

A) 1st trimester.
B) 2nd trimester.
C) 3rd trimester.
D) final days of her pregnancy.

Question 49

When the zygote implants in the fallopian tubes rather than in the uterus this is called a(n)

A) miscarriage.
B) spontaneous abortion.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) gestational abnormality.

Question 50

Women in their second trimester need to be monitored for this condition which may cause rapid fetal growth and premature labor.

A) Malnutrition
B) Miscarriage
C) Toxemia
D) Gestational diabetes

Question 51

The heart is one of the first structures to appear in the embryo. This is in accordance with the_________
Of development.

A) neural pattern
B) cephalocaudal pattern
C) viability
D) proximodistal pattern

Question 52

Prenatal development that proceeds from the head downward is according to the

A) cephalocaudal pattern.
B) proximodistal pattern.
C) germinal pattern.
D) gestational pattern.

Question 53

The_________ stage proceeds from conception to implantation and occurs during the first two weeks of prenatal development.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) new organism

Question 54

The first specialization in development occurs with the emergence of the

A) placenta.
B) umbilical cord.
C) internal organs.
D) blastocyst.

Question 55

Some of the cells of the blastocyst's outer wall will specialize to become the

A) life support system.
B) neurons.
C) organs of the embryo.
D) zygote.

Question 56

The life support system that passes nutrients from the mom to the embryo and transfers waste materials back is the

A) umbilical cord.
B) neurons.
C) cephalocaudal.
D) placenta.

Question 57

During the embryonic period all the major systems of the organism emerge. This process is called

A) emergence.
B) fetal development.
C) organogenesis.
D) implantation.

Question 58

By the end of the third week of prenatal development, neurons are beginning to form a primitive structure that will later become the brain and the spinal cord. This is called the

A) primitive brain.
B) hindbrain.
C) neural tube.
D) proximodistal brain.

Question 59

At a recent appointment with her nurse-midwife, Kira was told the embryo was not receiving enough oxygen from her. From this information she concluded that there must be a problem with the

A) embryo.
B) amnion.
C) umbilical cord.
D) placenta.

Question 60

The first electrical activity produced by the brain occurs during the_________ stage.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) zygote

Question 61

The longest and final stage of prenatal development is the_________ stage.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) zygote

Question 62

Regina has just experienced some movements and her nurse-midwife has helped her hear the heartbeat. Regina's offspring is in which of the following stages of prenatal development?

A) Germinal
B) Embryonic
C) Fetal
D) Zygote

Question 63

Viability is defined as the age at which a fetus can survive on its own outside the womb. On the average this is at_________ weeks.

A) 18
B) 24
C) 30
D) 34

Question 64

Caleb was delivered at 22 weeks. Although the neonatal intensive care unit was heroic in their efforts, Caleb died one week later. His death was most likely due to lack of immaturity of the

A) lungs.
B) heart.
C) brain.
D) muscles.

Question 65

Prenatal brain development is most dramatic in the fetal period. The number of neurons formed increases dramatically. This occurs between the 10th and 18th weeks and is called

A) organogenesis.
B) viability.
C) glial formation.
D) neuronal proliferation.

Question 66

In order for the brain to function properly there must be sufficient number of neurons and they must be in the correct location. The neurons move to their place during the 13th to 21st weeks. This process is called

A) organogenesis.
B) migration.
C) neuronal movement.
D) glial development.

Question 67

For electrical chemical transmissions within the brain_________, must be formed to connect the axons and dendrites of one neuron to the next.

A) glial cells
B) cell body
C) neural follicles
D) synapses

Question 68

One sex difference reliably found in prenatal and postnatal development is

A) females are more physically active.
B) females demonstrate more aggression.
C) males are more physically active.
D) males demonstrate more motor coordination.

Question 69

Research on the behavioral capabilities of fetuses has increased dramatically in the past several years. Findings from a number of studies indicate that

A) fetuses have reflexive behaviors only.
B) fetuses only respond to interuterine stimuli.
C) after 32 weeks, fetuses demonstrate learning capabilities.
D) fetuses at 37 weeks can imitate rhyming sounds.

Question 70

Exposure to teratogens is most damaging during

A) organogenesis.
B) the sensitive period.
C) the germinal stage.
D) the gestational period.

Question 71

The most important variable in the determination of the extent of harm a teratogen can cause to an organ or system depends upon the

A) amount of the teratogen.
B) quality of the teratogen.
C) timing of the exposure to the teratogen.
D) mother's response to the teratogen.

Question 72

Organ development is most open to exposure from teratogens during the embryonic and fetal periods. Therefore, these can be called _________periods for teratogen exposure.

A) gestational
B) sensitive
C) critical
D) harmful

Question 73

Researchers have found it difficult to decipher the effects of individual drugs on prenatal development. Women may use more than one drug, have poor nutritional habits and lack good prenatal care. In additional, there are ethical constraints on the types of research that can be conducted. Therefore, information on the effects of drugs on prenatal development is

A) experimental.
B) critical.
C) hypothetical.
D) correlational.

Question 74

Erin is a full half pound smaller than the other children in the hospital nursery. Research has documented that low birth is highly likely due to the use of _________by the fetus' mother.

A) tobacco
B) heroin
C) thalidomide
D) marijuana

Question 75

Joseph is smaller than his classmates. He has a flattened nose and heart defects. His IQ score indicates mild retardation. Joseph most likely has been diagnosed with

A) cocaine addiction syndrome.
B) HIV.
C) thalidomide related syndrome.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 76

Based on contemporary research, which of the following advice is given by competent providers of health care to women who are pregnant?

A) Do not consume alcohol or drugs during pregnancy.
B) Do not consume drugs but alcohol is permissible.
C) Do not consume alcohol but drugs are permissible.
D) Both alcohol and drugs are permissible.

Question 77

Alicia is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). When she consults with her midwife she is told that she should_________ as this is the most effective method of preventing the transmission of the virus to her fetus.

A) have a good nutritional regime
B) take AZT
C) avoid alcohol
D) have a vaginal delivery

Question 78

Brain stunting, a condition of decreased weight and volume and reduced neural connections, is most likely caused by

A) HIV.
B) gonorrhea.
C) genital herpes.
D) severe malnutrition.

Question 79

Based on findings comparing women across the reproductive continuum, the best age for conceiving and delivering children is

A) 15 - 20
B) 21 - 30
C) 31 - 40
D) 41 - 50

Question 80

A prenatal assessment technique which permits surgically correction of certain problems is

A) ultrasonography.
B) alpha-fetoprotein screening.
C) chorionic villus sampling.
D) fetoscopy.