Deck 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense

Question 1

Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) production of antibiotics
B) breakdown of raw sewage
C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine
D) production of soy sauce
E) production of vitamins for the human body

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Antibiotics are most likely to be effective in the treatment of infections caused by

A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) parasitic worms
D) lice and ticks
E) prions

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which of the following is associated with the specific defenses of the body?

A) cell-mediated immunity
B) phagocytosis
C) interferons
D) the inflammatory response
E) the complement system

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The following is a list of steps involved in the process of phagocytosis. Which of the following answers indicates these steps in the CORRECT order? 1. Lysosome fuses with the vesicle containing a foreign cell.
2) Wastes from the foreign cell are removed.
3) Foreign cell is surrounded by the cell membrane of the phagocyte.
4) Lysosomal enzymes break down the foreign cell.
5) Foreign cell is contained within a vesicle.

A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
E) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Question 5

Which one of the following is/are located in the tonsils to filter out many of the microorganisms that enter the throat?

A) thymus
B) adenoids
C) lymphocytes
D) platelets
E) red blood cells

Question 6

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding lymph nodes?

A) They are located only in the digestive tract and neck.
B) They remove microorganisms and abnormal cells from the lymph and return them to blood circulation.
C) Macrophages but not lymphocytes can be found within lymph nodes.
D) They filter lymph fluid, trapping microorganisms and abnormal cells.
E) Lymph flows from the lymph vessels to the urinary system.

Question 7

Developing strategies for treating HIV infection and preventing AIDS in sub-Saharan Africa have been complicated by

A) an overabundance of medical personnel in the region
B) the inability to identify AIDS patients located in sub-Saharan Africa
C) a complex network of roads for travel to villages
D) medical records being coded differently than in North America
E) intense competition from European and North American pharmaceutical corporations in providing funds for education and treatment of AIDS

Question 8

When comparing viruses and bacteria, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A) Viruses are larger than bacteria.
B) Viruses are pathogens; bacteria are decomposers.
C) Viruses have membrane-bound organelles; bacteria do not have membrane-bound organelles.
D) Viruses and bacteria are both able to reproduce on their own.
E) Viruses and bacteria both contain genetic material.

Question 9

Which of the following leukocytes kills its target cells, such as cancer cells or virus-infected cells, by releasing chemicals that break down the target cell membrane?

A) natural killer cells
B) B lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) T lymphocytes
E) macrophages

Question 10

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the spleen?

A) It is located in the lower portion of the thoracic cavity.
B) Red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood.
C) White pulp of the spleen contains macrophages that kill microorganisms circulating in the lymph.
D) Red pulp of the spleen contains primarily lymphocytes.
E) The spleen has the same functions as the tonsils.

Question 11

Body defenses that respond to generalized tissue damage and many common pathogens are referred to as

A) phagocytic
B) antipathogenic responses
C) nonspecific mechanisms
D) lymphomas
E) specific mechanisms

Question 12

Once a prion enters a nerve cell, it essentially

A) assumes the correct folding orientation for the protein
B) stops the cascade of misfolding events associated with adjacent cells
C) becomes self-propagating, causing misfolding of nearby normal proteins
D) differentiates into a nonreplicating virus
E) differentiates into a replicating virus

Question 13

Why do some physicians advise patients with a bladder infection to drink a lot of cranberry juice?

A) Cranberry juice contains chemicals that kill viruses and bacteria.
B) The increased volume of fluid in the bladder causes bacterial cells to burst as they absorb the excess fluid.
C) Cranberry juice makes the urine more acidic, decreasing the rate at which microorganisms can grow and reproduce.
D) Cranberry juice increases the efficiency of urine production by the kidneys.
E) Cranberry juice enhances the action of phagocytic cells.

Question 14

Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be directly involved in the destruction of flukes (a parasitic flatworm)?

A) natural killer cells
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) B lymphocytes
E) basophils

Question 15

Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

A) rabies
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) toxic shock syndrome
E) tuberculosis

Question 16

The release of chemicals from injured cells triggers histamine release from

A) macrophages
B) B cells
C) neutrophils
D) phagocytes
E) mast cells

Question 17

All of the following are ways in which a mild fever participates as part of the body's second line of defense and aids the body EXCEPT

A) increasing the metabolic rate of body cells
B) speeding up defense reactions
C) increasing the rate of tissue repair
D) creating an inhospitable internal environment for pathogenic bacteria
E) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by plasma cells

Question 18

All of the following represent physical and/or chemical barriers that form the body's first line of defense against pathogens EXCEPT which one?

A) tears
B) resident bacteria
C) skin surface
D) earwax
E) antibodies

Question 19

The bubonic plague epidemic that swept through Europe between 1348 and 1350 A.D. was induced by a(n)

A) virus
B) prion
C) protozoan
D) bacterium
E) unidentified eukaryotic organism

Question 20

Skin is able to prevent most microorganisms from entering the body by

A) producing alkaline secretions
B) having keratin in the uppermost layer
C) production of antibodies
D) the adhesion junction in the skin preventing bacteria from entering
E) releasing macrophages on the skin surface

Question 21

All of the following are involved in the inflammatory response EXCEPT

A) antibodies
B) mast cells
C) histamine
D) basophils
E) phagocytes

Question 22

Which one of the following is characteristic of T lymphocytes but NOT B lymphocytes?

A) direct attack of antigen-bearing cells
B) production of immunoglobulins
C) maturation in the red bone marrow
D) production of plasma cells
E) antibody-mediated immunity

Question 23

Once a macrophage engulfs a bacterium, what happens to the foreign cell?

A) It is released into the lymph system for removal from the body.
B) It is released into the digestive tract for removal from the body.
C) The macrophage is attacked by antibodies, killing the cell and bacterium.
D) Antibodies penetrate the macrophage to lyse the bacterial cell.
E) The bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes.

Question 24

The figure above illustrates antibody titers produced during a primary and secondary immune response. All of the following statements about the primary and secondary immune response are correct EXCEPT which one?

A) Antibody is produced at a much higher rate during the secondary immune response.
B) The antibody level produced in the secondary response is three times greater than that produced during the primary immune response.
C) There is a lag time between antigen exposure and antibody production in the primary immune response that is not seen in the secondary immune response.
D) The difference between the two responses is due to the presence of memory cells during the secondary response.
E) Antibody levels stay elevated for a longer time following a secondary response.

Question 25

Which one of the following types of T cells is a critical component of the immune system because it stimulates and enhances the activity of other components of the immune system?

A) T suppressor cell
B) T memory cell
C) T helper cell
D) cytotoxic T cell
E) natural killer cells

Question 26

Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that passive immunity

A) causes long-term immunity
B) involves the administration of preformed antibodies
C) results in the production of antibodies
D) is not effective against a preexisting condition
E) results in the production of memory cells

Question 27

Which one of the following is correct regarding the structure of an antibody?

A) An antibody is made up of two polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds.
B) The four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds.
C) The constant regions of the polypeptides in an antibody form antigen-binding sites.
D) Only one polypeptide in an antibody has a constant region and a variable region.
E) The polypeptides making up an antibody are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Question 28

The advantage of having memory cells in specific defenses is that

A) they remain in an active state, continuously producing antibodies
B) if exposed to an antigen a second time, they quickly become plasma cells
C) they prevent production of other proteins so that antibodies can be produced
D) they produce antibodies and can become phagocytic
E) they prevent viruses from entering the body a second time

Question 29

Which of the following classes of antibodies activates the inflammatory response by causing the release of histamine?

A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA

Question 30

Vaccines contain

A) memory cells against the pathogen
B) antigens of the pathogen
C) antibodies of the pathogen
D) lymphokines
E) T cells programmed to attack the pathogen

Question 31

Which of the following are proteins in the blood, which when activated can lyse bacterial cells, mark other bacterial cells for destruction, and enhance inflammation?

A) albumins
B) antibodies
C) complement
D) interferons
E) lymphokines

Question 32

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

Identify the figure above.

A) complement
B) antibody
C) antigen
D) interferon
E) pyrogen

Question 33

Which one of the following best explains why people get so many colds in their lifetime?

A) The immune system has a hard time identifying the viruses that cause the colds.
B) The viruses that cause these colds constantly produce new antibodies, which cause the symptoms.
C) These individuals do not produce enough white blood cells.
D) The viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure.
E) The B cells of these individuals destroy their T cells.

Question 34

Which one type of cells are responsible for producing and releasing antibodies?

A) red bone marrow
B) B lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) macrophages
E) natural killer cells

Question 35

Which of the following antibodies would most likely be involved with the immune response against a microorganism entering the digestive or reproductive tract?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgE

Question 36

During cytotoxic T cell attack of a target cell, which one of the following is released to pierce the cell membrane of the foreign cell, which ultimately kills the target cell?

A) interferon
B) eosinophil
C) histamine
D) perforin
E) antibody

Question 37

Which one of the following enables T helper cells to stimulate and activate other cells of the immune response?

A) interferon
B) cytokines
C) antibodies
D) complement
E) histamine

Question 38

Which immune system cell must be presented with antigen by an antigen-presenting cell such as a macrophage, in order to become appropriately activated?

A) B lymphocyte
B) plasma cell
C) macrophage
D) T lymphocyte
E) natural killer cell

Question 39

Antibodies are classified by size, location, and function, and which one of the following represents the most common type of immunoglobulin?

A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) MHC

Question 40

Viral-infected human cells often send out special proteins that serve as an early warning system to uninfected cells. In response, the uninfected cells develop antiviral proteins that protect them. The early warning proteins sent out by viral-infected cells are

A) complement
B) interferon
C) antibodies
D) antigens
E) antibiotics

Question 41

All of the following are used in the production of monoclonal antibodies EXCEPT which one?

A) mouse T cells
B) mouse B cells
C) antigen
D) myeloma (cancer) cells
E) cell culturing media and supplies

Question 42

Which of the following best describes Phase I of HIV infection?

A) T cell count of 100 per cubic millimeter of blood
B) presence of an opportunistic infection
C) swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, body aches
D) onset of AIDS
E) absence of HIV antibodies

Question 43

Bacterial pathogens cause symptoms of a disease by invading host cells or by producing toxins that damage host cells.

Question 44

Prions are infectious proteins that cause normal proteins in the brain to misfold.

Question 45

The thymus gland, which is responsible for the development of T cells, stops growing during adolescence and shrinks as one grows into adulthood.

Question 46

Referring to the figure above, the progression from Phase II HIV infection to Phase III is marked by

A) a high fever and swollen lymph nodes
B) drop in the helper T cell count to less than 200/mm³
C) complete absence of antibodies to HIV
D) decreasing number of HIV in the blood
E) helper T cell numbers recovering from an initial drop

Question 47

Viral infections can usually be treated with antibiotics.

Question 48

An individual with an uncertain vaccine history has been brought to the emergency room after receiving severe lacerations in an accident with farm machinery. In addition to administering a tetanus toxoid vaccine, he is also given a shot of tetanus immune globulin (TIG), a form of passive immunization. Why are both necessary?

A) The tetanus vaccine provides immediate protection, and the tetanus immune globulin provides long-term protection.
B) The doctor is not sure which will work faster in this patient, so decides to administer both.
C) The tetanus immune globulin is given only when there are severe injuries and a high risk of infection.
D) Tetanus immune globulin is always given along with the tetanus vaccine.
E) The tetanus immune globulin provides immediate, short-term protection, and the tetanus vaccine provides long-term protection.

Question 49

Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder in which the body attacks

A) its own connective tissue
B) the brain
C) the spleen
D) its own antibodies
E) heart tissue

Question 50

Tears and saliva contain the enzyme dermicidin, which is effective in preventing bacteria from entering the human body.

Question 51

All of the following are involved in the generation of an allergic response EXCEPT which one?

A) allergen
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) mast cells and basophils
E) histamine

Question 52

The bacteria that normally live on the mucous membranes of the digestive tract and vagina provide protection against infection with harmful disease-producing microorganisms.

Question 53

Any substance that produces an inappropriate response of the immune system is referred to as a(an)

A) allergen
B) antibody
C) plasma cell
D) allergy
E) perforin

Question 54

Which of the following body fluids does not transmit HIV from human to human?

A) blood
B) semen
C) saliva
D) vaginal fluid
E) breast milk

Question 55

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because

A) it infects only cells with a CD4 receptor
B) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell
C) this virus is composed of two cells surrounded by a lipoprotein coat
D) it reverts to an inactive form when it infects B lymphocytes
E) it causes the production of HIV antibodies

Question 56

Which of the following is TRUE regarding HIV and AIDS?

A) Most of the people infected with HIV live in South America, where the disease originated.
B) Approximately 100,000 people worldwide die each year from AIDS.
C) Due to improved education and prevention methods in the United States, the number of newly diagnosed cases of AIDS is rapidly declining.
D) Symptoms of AIDS do not normally appear until years after HIV detection.
E) If an individual with AIDS gets proper medical attention, he or she probably will not die from complications associated with this syndrome.

Question 57

Lymph nodes filter the blood and remove bacteria and other invading microorganisms that may have entered the blood stream.

Question 58

All of the following are routinely done to assure a successful organ transplant and minimize the chance of organ rejection EXCEPT which one?

A) match the ABO blood types of donor and recipient
B) match the MHC tissue types of donor and recipient
C) irradiate the recipient to knock out his or her immune system prior to the transplant
D) give the recipient immunosuppressive drugs to suppress reactions against the transplanted tissue
E) give the recipient antibiotics to control any infections

Question 59

Antibiotics kill bacterial cells but do not (usually) damage human cells by taking advantage of the difference between human and bacterial cells. These differences include

A) bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not
B) bacterial ribosomes are larger than those of humans
C) protein synthesis in bacteria is identical to that in human cells
D) bacterial cells have a cell membrane, human cells do not
E) human and bacterial DNA are enclosed in a nucleus

Question 60

Which one of the following would result in passive immunity?

A) vaccination
B) past occurrence of an infection or disease
C) production of memory cells
D) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child
E) stimulation of T cells and B cells by an antigen

Question 61

Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________.

Question 62

One role of MHC proteins is that they serve as self markers to the human immune system.

Question 63

The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.

Question 64

The best way to defend the body from a viral infection is to prevent the infection by using a vaccine.

Question 65

The two major types of phagocytic cells are the ________ and the ________.

Question 66

When considering transfusions or transplants, it is more difficult to match blood than to match tissue types because blood cells have more self markers on their surface.

Question 67

The best way to reduce bacterial pathogens in the blood stream is to reduce a fever as quickly as possible.

Question 68

Histamine is released by neutrophils to induce an inflammation response when tissues become damaged.

Question 69

Helicobacter pylori can survive the acidic conditions of the human stomach and have been found to cause the development of stomach ________.

Question 70

Microbes that cause disease are referred to as ________.

Question 71

B lymphocytes mature in the ________.

Question 72

The first type of white blood cell to arrive at the site of an infection is the eosinophil.

Question 73

Tears and saliva contain ________, an enzyme that kills bacteria.

Question 74

Individuals infected with HIV produce antibodies, but these antibodies don't prevent progression to Phase II and Phase III of infection.

Question 75

Bacteria are classified as ________ because they are made up of cells that do not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

Question 76

Microorganisms and cellular debris are removed from lymph by the ________ and from blood by the ________.

Question 77

The main cell of the immune system targeted by HIV is the ________.

Question 78

While T lymphocytes are maturing, each of them develops one of two sets of proteins on their cell surface. These proteins are known as ________ and ________.

Question 79

Plasma cells and memory cells are types of ________ lymphocytes; both types of cells secrete proteins called ________ as part of the immune response.

Question 80

T cells are activated by macrophages and activated B cells, which fulfill this role by acting as ________.