Deck 3: Medicine Administration and Professional Responsibilities

Question 1

Following use of a nebuliser unit:

A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.

Answer 1

dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.

Question 2

A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed:

A) in a flat position.
B) in a semi-upright position.
C) in a side position.
D) in a prone position.

Answer 2

in a semi-upright position.

Question 3

Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?

A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.

Answer 3

Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.

Question 4

The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:

A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.

Question 5

Storing biological products, for example insulin at 0-4°C, prevents:

A) proliferation.
B) pain on administration.
C) medication errors.
D) denaturation.

Question 6

Eye drops are made isotonic:

A) to avoid pain or discomfort on application.
B) to prevent infection.
C) to prevent an increase in intraocular pressure.
D) to prevent trachoma.

Question 7

The rights of drug administration are:

A) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person, by the right route, at the right time.
B) giving the right drug, in the right dose, at the right time.
C) giving the right drug, in the right dose, by the right route.
D) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person.

Question 8

In children over the age of three and adults, for aural administration the auricle is pulled:

A) down and back.
B) up and back.
C) down and outwards.
D) up and outwards.

Question 9

Following buccal administration, a drug:

A) travels along the gastrointestinal system.
B) goes directly to the hepatic portal circulation.
C) is absorbed directly into blood vessels.
D) is broken down by the stomach.

Question 10

Which of the following injections involves drug administration to a highly vascular area of the body?

A) Subcutaneous injection.
B) Intradermal injection.
C) Intrathecal injection.
D) Intramuscular injection.

Question 11

The shelf life of a reconstituted penicillin mixture is:

A) 5 days.
B) 7 days.
C) 9 days.
D) 12 days.

Question 12

Administering enteric-coated medications via a NGT (nasogastric tube) is:

A) usually alright if a large flush of water is given afterwards.
B) not advisable as medications via NGT need to be crushed.
C) standard practice.
D) acceptable as long as the crushed tablet is not mixed with other medications.

Question 13

The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:

A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.

Question 14

Ointments are lipid-based preparations that act like an occlusive dressing to:

A) completely shut out the skin from the air, but allow sweating to still occur.
B) partially shut out the skin from the air, but allow sweating to still occur.
C) partially shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.
D) completely shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.

Question 15

After administering ear drops, to allow the medication to disperse and absorb, the client should:

A) not talk for 5 minutes.
B) lie down with the affected ear facing up for about 10 minutes.
C) lie down flat for 10 minutes.
D) sit for 5 minutes.

Question 16

Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine, which are commonly used in critical care areas, cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:

A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.

Question 17

The shelf life of eye drops after opening the container is:

A) 12 days.
B) 24 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 36 days.

Question 18

Medication ordered at particular intervals should be given on time to:

A) ensure that nurses provide their nursing care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.

Question 19

Which of the following respiratory devices are not effective for use in acute exacerbation of asthma?

A) Metered-dose inhalers.
B) Spacer devices.
C) Nebulisers.
D) Dry powder inhalers.

Question 20

To avoid hydrolysis of aspirin tablets, the container should be kept:

A) in the bathroom.
B) in the kitchen.
C) in a coat pocket.
D) in a cool, dry place.

Question 21

Suppositories, in general, when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:

A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.

Question 22

Sublingual administration of a drug always ensures:

A) rapid action.
B) avoidance of hepatic first pass.
C) minimal adverse effects.
D) all of the above.

Question 23

Drugs administered transdermally must be:

A) lipophilic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophobic.
D) amphipathic.

Question 24

In order to avoid medication errors, it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:

A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.

Question 25

Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored

A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.

Question 26

For best results when administering nystatin oral drops, you should do all of the following except:

A) place it under the tongue.
B) hold it in the mouth for as long as possible.
C) swallow it straight away.
D) place it in the buccal cavity.

Question 27

What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?

A) Hydrocortisone.
B) Adrenaline.
C) Salbutamol.
D) Promethazine.

Question 28

Intrathecal injection is a mode of drug delivery into

A) blood.
B) lymph.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) synovial fluid.

Question 29

Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?

A) Aspirin.
B) Contrast media.
C) Penicillin.
D) Transfused blood.

Question 30

Which is true of a linctus?

A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.

Question 31

A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:

A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.

Question 32

Which of the following is not an objective of the Australian National Medicines Policy?

A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford.
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy.
C) Quality use of medicines.
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management.

Question 33

A drug formulated into a(n) ________ will penetrate the deeper layers of the skin most effectively.

A) lotion
B) gel
C) ointment
D) cream

Question 34

A type A adverse drug reaction is:

A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology of a medication.

Question 35

A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) finds the number needed to treat (NNT) with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300. This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:

A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.

Question 36

Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:

A) block α-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate α-adrenoceptors.
C) block β-adrenoceptors.
D) stimulate β-adrenoceptors.

Question 37

Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:

A) draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.
B) dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.
C) improve the fluid balance of the client.
D) bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.

Question 38

How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics, digoxin and warfarin?

A) None.
B) One.
C) Two.
D) More than five.

Question 39

What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?

A) Pentazocine.
B) Naloxone.
C) Methadone.
D) Naltrexone.

Question 40

Which of the following routes of drug administration is recommended for a rapid drug effect?

A) Intradermal.
B) Intravenous.
C) Oral.
D) Topical.

Question 41

A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension. The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following except:

A) α-adrenoreceptor agonist.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) α-adrenoreceptor antagonist.

Question 42

Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.

Question 43

The deltoid muscle is more vascular than the gluteus muscle so it is possible to inject a large volume (exceeding 1 mL) of drug into the deltoid muscle.

Question 44

A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.

Question 45

There is a risk of damage to the large sciatic nerve when administering a drug by intramuscular injection into the gluteus muscle.

Question 46

Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.

Question 47

Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following except for:

A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.