Deck 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function

Question 1

Treatment of diarrhoea with diphenoxylate may cause:

A) constipation.
B) dysphagia.
C) gastric reflux.
D) increased bowel sounds.

Answer 1

constipation.

Question 2

Treatment with the anti-inflammatory bowel drug sulfasalazine can cause:

A) insomnia.
B) dizziness.
C) male infertility.
D) vitamin A deficiency.

Answer 2

male infertility.

Question 3

An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:

A) misoprostol.
B) ranitidine.
C) astemizole.
D) omeprazole.

Answer 3

omeprazole.

Question 4

Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?

A) Prochlorperazine.
B) Domperidone.
C) Ondansetron.
D) Dolasetron.

Question 5

Prostaglandin analogues used in the treatment of peptic ulcers:

A) inhibit histamine production.
B) inhibit acetylcholine production.
C) inhibit acid production.
D) stimulate mucus formation.

Question 6

Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?

A) Lubricants and stimulant laxatives.
B) Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives.
C) Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants.
D) Irritant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives.

Question 7

Omeprazole is an example of a:

A) proton pump inhibitor.
B) H₂ antagonist.
C) prostaglandin analogue.
D) cytoprotective.

Question 8

The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:

A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.

Question 9

Sennosides are best administered:

A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.

Question 10

How should histamine H₂-receptor antagonists be administered in relation to food?

A) They should be administered with food.
B) They should be administered immediately following food.
C) They can be administered with or without food.
D) They should be administered two hours before food.

Question 11

Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates the production of mucus in the gastrointestinal tract and inhibits secretion of hydrochloric acid?

A) Acetylcholine.
B) Histamine.
C) Gastrin.
D) Prostaglandin E.

Question 12

It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:

A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.

Question 13

A non-pharmacological treatment for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy (NVP) is:

A) blue vein cheese.
B) iced tea.
C) ginger.
D) eucalyptus.

Question 14

Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?

A) Prochlorperazine.
B) Metoclopramide.
C) Domperidone.
D) Ondansetron.

Question 15

Docusate is a:

A) faecal softener.
B) lubricant.
C) stimulant.
D) bulk laxative.

Question 16

Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:

A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.

Question 17

Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:

A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.

Question 18

In order to determine the effectiveness of Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, which of the following tests is usually performed?

A) Gastroscopy.
B) Barium swallow.
C) Urea breath test.
D) Gastrointestinal biopsy.

Question 19

Antacids containing aluminium and divalent ions can be problematic because they:

A) make the gut too acidic.
B) are known to induce Alzheimer's disease.
C) interact with tetracycline antibiotics and inactivate them.
D) form a viscous jelly that can obstruct the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 20

The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:

A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.

Question 21

Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis. Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?

A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine.
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam.
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine.
D) A hypnotic, midazolam.

Question 22

Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of

A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.

Question 23

Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?

A) Ondansetron.
B) Prochlorperazine.
C) Domperidone.
D) Cisapride.

Question 24

The two main types of treatment for inflammatory bowel disease are:

A) antispasmodics and anti-inflammatories.
B) immunosuppressants and opioids.
C) opioids and antispasmodics.
D) anti-inflammatories and immunosuppressants.

Question 25

Cryotherapy may be useful to treat haemorrhoids because

A) it can increase blood supply and promote healing.
B) it induces a fibrosis that anchors the haemorrhoid.
C) it can cause shrinking of the dilated veins.
D) it can precipitate cell surface proteins and reduce swelling.

Question 26

Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?

A) Lubricants.
B) Stimulant laxatives.
C) Osmotic laxatives.
D) Faecal softeners.

Question 27

In perianal disease ________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.

A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener

Question 28

Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?

A) Dimenhydrinate.
B) Metoclopramide.
C) Ondansetron.
D) Hyoscine.

Question 29

Sodium dioctyl sulphosuccinate is often used as a stool softener in young children. What would you advise the parents of a child who has been given this preparation about when they can expect to see results?

A) Two days.
B) One day.
C) 12-24 hours.
D) Less than six hours.

Question 30

A first line therapy for chronic constipation would be:

A) stimulant laxatives such as senna.
B) faecal softeners such as docusate.
C) osmotic laxatives such as glycerol.
D) lubricants such as liquid paraffin.

Question 31

Which of the following pairs of proton pump inhibitors inhibit the cytochrome P450 system and have a number of clinically important drug interactions?

A) Esomeprazole and omeprazole.
B) Rabeprazole and lansoprazole.
C) Lansoprazole and pantoprazole
D) Esomeprazole and rabeprazole.

Question 32

The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because:

A) it can exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) it can lead to rebound acidosis.
C) it can lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) it can inactivate antimicrobial agents.

Question 33

The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:

A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.

Question 34

Medication adherence can be affected by the frequency of administration of a medication regimen. Once-a-day regimens are likely to bring about better medication adherence than two- to three-times-a-day regimens. Which of the following setrons used in the treatment of chemically induced nausea and vomiting need to be administered two to three times a day?

A) Granisetron.
B) Ondansetron.
C) Tropisetron.
D) Dolasetron.