Deck 15: Medicines Used Topically

Question 1

Which one of the following drug groups is not currently used in the management of glaucoma?

A) Anticholinesterases.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Diuretics.
D) Prostamides.

Answer 1

Anticholinesterases.

Question 2

Systemic absorption of eye drops can be prevented by:

A) waiting at least 10 minutes between administering drops.
B) tilting the head back during instillation.
C) closing the eye very slowly following instillation.
D) applying pressure to the tear duct immediately after instillation.

Answer 2

applying pressure to the tear duct immediately after instillation.

Question 3

Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:

A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.

Answer 3

metronidazole.

Question 4

When using the vitamin D analogue calcipotriol for psoriasis, it can be carefully applied to lesions located on the:

A) scalp.
B) face.
C) body surface.
D) skin folds.

Question 5

Factors that can affect the rate of topical drug absorption into the eyeball include all of the following except:

A) the pH of the environment.
B) corneal integrity.
C) the age of the person.
D) blinking.

Question 6

Visual accommodation results from:

A) sympathetic stimulation of the iris.
B) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary processes.
C) sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal apparatus.
D) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscle.

Question 7

Which one of the following reactions is not a common adverse reaction to topical application of ophthalmic drugs?

A) A stinging sensation.
B) Altered colour vision.
C) Oedema.
D) A burning sensation.

Question 8

Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:

A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection
D) purulent bacterial infections.

Question 9

Which one of the following drugs is used as an ocular astringent?

A) Polyvinyl alcohol.
B) Zinc sulphate.
C) Chlorhexidine acetate.
D) Rose bengal.

Question 10

Topical corticosteroids for use in inflammatory eye conditions should not be used for more than ________ week(s).

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 11

Cycloplegia is a side effect of some ophthalmic drug treatments. It is defined as:

A) poor near vision.
B) pupil dilation.
C) pupil constriction.
D) an incomplete closure of the eyelids.

Question 12

Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?

A) β-blockers.
B) Prostaglandin analogues.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) α-adrenergic agonists.

Question 13

For the treatment of scabies with crotamiton, application is required ________ until eradicated.

A) 2 hourly
B) daily
C) twice weekly
D) weekly

Question 14

For a drug to be absorbed into the eyeball through the cornea, it would need to be:

A) lipophilic only.
B) hydrophilic only.
C) hydrophobic only.
D) both lipophilic and hydrophilic.

Question 15

Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?

A) Tetracycline.
B) Azelaic acid.
C) Metronidazole.
D) Isotretinoin.

Question 16

The site of administration of an intracameral injection would be:

A) directly under the conjunctival membrane.
B) into the posterior cavity.
C) into the anterior chamber.
D) behind the eyeball.

Question 17

For the treatment of pediculosis (lice) using pyrethrins, the preparation should be left on the scalp for at least ________ minutes.

A) 20
B) 10
C) 5
D) 2

Question 18

Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?

A) Iris.
B) Ciliary bodies.
C) Lacrimal apparatus.
D) Sclera.

Question 19

Trachoma is associated with:

A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.

Question 20

Which one of the following is a part of the vascular tunic?

A) The sclera.
B) The iris.
C) The central fovea.
D) The extrinsic muscles.

Question 21

The mechanism of action of the counterirritant capsaicin is thought to involve:

A) vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels.
B) a stimulation of opioid receptors.
C) an interference in the release of substance P.
D) a softening and loosening of the outer layers of the skin.

Question 22

The epidermal layer that is also known as the grainy layer is called the:

A) stratum basale.
B) stratum granulosum.
C) stratum corneum.
D) stratum spinosum.

Question 23

Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinion treatment?

A) To avoid sunscreen use.
B) To monitor iron levels.
C) To supplement with folate.
D) To ensure adequate contraception.

Question 24

Useful drugs in the management of baldness are those that:

A) act as oestrogen receptor antagonists.
B) stimulate the release of luteinising hormone.
C) inhibit the metabolism of testosterone.
D) have progestogenic activity.

Question 25

SPF 15 sunscreens block about:

A) 94 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 6 per cent penetration.
B) 95 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 5 per cent penetration.
C) 96 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 4 per cent penetration.
D) 97 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 3 per cent penetration.

Question 26

Botulinum toxin is indicated in the treatment of skeletal muscle spasm as it:

A) breaks down noradrenaline at the synapse.
B) blocks the release of acetylcholine from nerves.
C) causes an influx of calcium ions into muscle cells.
D) is a sedative medication.

Question 27

The middle layer of the eye is called the:

A) fibrous tunic.
B) sclera.
C) vascular tunic.
D) choroid.

Question 28

Children with eczema are more likely to develop:

A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.

Question 29

Nappy rash can occur due to:

A) the use of disposable nappy products.
B) the production of ammonia from the breakdown of urine.
C) hypersensitivity reactions to breast milk.
D) all of the above.

Question 30

Which one of the following sunscreens blocks almost 97% of UVB light?

A) SPF 6.
B) SPF 15.
C) SPF 30.
D) SPF 50.

Question 31

The first choice treatment for glaucoma is:

A) miotics.
B) beta-blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics

Question 32

Which of the following is not appropriate advice to offer an individual receiving verteporfin treatment?

A) That since verteporfin can cause blurring or black spots, driving a car or operating machinery should be avoided.
B) Avoid skin and eye exposure to sunlight and to bright indoor light for 48 hours after treatment.
C) Remain in a darkened room when staying indoors.
D) Wear protective clothing and sunglasses at all times when going outside.

Question 33

One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:

A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.

Question 34

Which of the following is a drug group that is used in the treatment of glaucoma that decreases aqueous humour production?

A) Prostamides.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) β-blockers.

Question 35

Psoriasis is thought to involve:

A) an inflammatory response involving T cell activation.
B) an allergic reaction where skin mast cells degranulate.
C) immune complexes lodging in the skin and triggering a hypersensitivity reaction.
D) a viral infection of the skin and adjacent mucous membranes.