Deck 2: Cells and Cell Division

Question 1

In meiosis, when do cells become haploid?

A) After telophase I
B) After telophase II
C) During anaphase I
D) During anaphase II
E) After prophase II

Answer 1

A

Question 2

A cell that could not form spindle fibers could not perform ____.

A) energy production
B) gas exchange across the plasma membrane
C) meiosis
D) DNA replication
E) protein synthesis

Answer 2

C

Question 3

In the cell cycle, the G2 phase represents ____.

A) the stage of DNA synthesis
B) splitting of the chromosomes into chromatids
C) a period of growth
D) the stage of actual cell division
E) the stage just prior to meiosis

Answer 3

C

Question 4

How many different types of chromosomes do humans possess?

A) 22
B) 23
C) 24
D) 42
E) 46

Question 5

Which of the following biomolecules is directly important for membrane structure and function?

A) Polysaccharides
B) Steroids
C) DNA
D) Phospholipids
E) ATP

Question 6

Autosomes represent ____.

A) all chromosomes including the sex chromosomes
B) the half of the chromosomes inherited from one parent
C) all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes
D) chromosome pairs with unlike members
E) those chromosomes found only in gametes

Question 7

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate in ____.

A) metaphase I
B) anaphase I
C) metaphase II
D) anaphase II
E) telophase

Question 8

Which of the following organelles is NOT involved with protein synthesis?

A) The rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) The Golgi complex
C) The nucleus
D) The lysosomes
E) All of these organelles are involved in protein synthesis

Question 9

Which of the following are NOT haploid?

A) Polar bodies and secondary spermatocytes
B) Primary oocytes and spermatids
C) Secondary spermatocytes and spermatogonia
D) Primary oocytes and spermatogonia
E) Secondary spermatocytes and spermatids

Question 10

The underlying problem with Gaucher diseases is ___.

A) the spontaneous breakdown of red blood cells
B) the accumulation of fat in white blood cells
C) the breakdown of the myelin sheath around nerves
D) a hypertrophied spleen
E) the lack of critical liver enzymes

Question 11

Centromeres are described by all of the following events except one. Select the exception.

A) They divide in anaphase of mitosis.
B) They connect sister chromatids.
C) They attach chromosomes to spindle fibers.
D) They cross over during prophase I of meiosis.
E) There are no exceptions. All of these events describe centromeres.

Question 12

The Hayflick limit describes ____.

A) the size limit to which a cell can grow
B) the number of divisions a cultured cell can undergo
C) the largest number of chromosomes an organism can possess
D) the most cells an organism can have
E) how rapidly DNA replication occurs

Question 13

Which of the following genetic diseases involve defects in DNA repair, which affects cell division?

A) Gaucher disease and Werner syndrome
B) Kearns-Sayre syndrome and progeria
C) Progeria and Werner syndrome
D) Gaucher disease and cystic fibrosis
E) Progeria and Werner syndrome

Question 14

Ribosomes are organelles that function in ____.

A) plasma membrane selectivity
B) cellular energy production
C) synthesis of gene products
D) transport of materials throughout the cytoplasm
E) DNA replication

Question 15

With which organelle are ribosomes most closely associated?

A) The Golgi complex
B) Lysosomes
C) Mitochondria
D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?

A) Energy carrier
B) Structure of bones
C) Enzymes
D) Hormones
E) All of these are functions of proteins

Question 17

During meiosis in an organism where 2n = 8, how many chromatids will be present in a cell at the beginning of meiosis II?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 12

Question 18

A cell in G₀ state is a cell ____.

A) that will shortly enter G1
B) that never divides
C) that has just finished mitosis but has not yet begun cytokinesis
D) in cytokinesis
E) just after cytokinesis

Question 19

The process of meiosis results in ____.

A) the production of four identical cells
B) no change in chromosome number from parental cells
C) a doubling of the chromosome number
D) a reduction in chromosome number
E) two diploid cells

Question 20

Which of the following is an event that does NOT occur in prophase of mitosis?

A) The chromosomes are duplicated.
B) The nuclear envelope starts to break up.
C) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
D) The chromosomes begin to condense.
E) All of these are events that occure in prophase of mitosis.

Question 21

There are 92 chromosomes in a normal human cell undergoing mitosis at the anaphase stage.

Question 22

Mitotic divisions reduce the number of chromosomes found in daughter cells.

Question 23

In spermatogenesis, what cells form in meiosis II?

A) Primary spermatocytes
B) Secondary spermatocytes
C) Spermatids
D) Mature sperm
E) More than one of these

Question 24

The only cytoplasmic organelles besides nuclei that contain DNA are the ____________________.

Question 25

There are __________ autosomes present in a human egg.

Question 26

Skin cells typically do not divide.

Question 27

If a cell was to stop dividing, it would stop in the __________ part of the cell cycle.

Question 28

In many respects, the events of prophase seem to be the reverse of those occurring in ____________________.

Question 29

In cell division, toward the end of nuclear division, the cytoplasm divides by a process called ______________ to produce two identical cells.

Question 30

Autosomal chromosome pairs are identical, whereas the sex chromosome pair in males is not.

Question 31

A polar body, once formed, has no further function and dies.

Question 32

Ribosomes exist either free in the cytoplasm or attached to the membranes of ____________________.

Question 33

The chromosomal structure that anchors the spindle fiber to the chromosome is ____________________.

Question 34

"Crossing over" is partially responsible for our genetic diversity.

Question 35

Which of the following occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II?

A) DNA replication
B) Crossing over
C) Random assortment
D) Reduction of chromosome number
E) None of these occur between meiosis I and meiosis II

Question 36

Cytokinesis usually occurs just prior to mitosis.

Question 37

In meiosis of oogenesis, how many mature eggs result?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 38

In meiosis, sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the spindle during ____________________.

Question 39

In mitosis, chromatids separate and move to the center of the cell during ____________________.

Question 40

Crossing over occurs between chromatids of homologous chromosome pairs.

Question 41

Compare and contrast meiosis I and meiosis II, phase by phase.

Question 42

Since only a relatively small number of genes is active in most specialized cells of the body, why must mitosis involve the replication of a complete set of genes?

Question 43

Compare and contrast mitosis with meiosis II.

Question 44

Based on the events of oogenesis, what would be an obvious and simple method for determining the sex of an Olympic athlete? Explain.

Question 45

Compare and contrast events and results of oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

Question 46

From an evolutionary standpoint, does it seem logical that mitosis evolved before meiosis, and that meiosis is really a specialized form of mitosis? Or should mitosis be regarded as a degenerate form of meiosis?

Question 47

Describe the cell cycle. Do all cells go through this cycle at the same time?

Question 48

Would an understanding of the mechanism of the Hayflick limit lead to an increase in the human life span?

Question 49

What is accomplished by the unequal cytokinesis of oogenesis?

Question 50

Compare and contrast mitosis with meiosis I.

Question 51

Describe the two genetic recombination events accomplished in meiosis.

Question 52

One primary spermatocyte produces ____________________ (how many?) functional sperm(s); one primary oocyte produces ____________________ functional egg(s).