Deck 13: Data Reporting, Interpretation, and Use

Question 1

Government agencies and third-party payers require that appropriate codes be used to represent the reason for the encounter. The aggregate data from these health encounters may be used to populate special databases for:

A) Patient treatment.
B) Physician decision making.
C) Research.
D) Interoperability analysis.

Answer 1

Research.

Question 2

If a patient meets the clinical definition of a reportable disease the case is:

A) Identified as the index case.
B) Reported on the basis of the epidemiological definition.
C) Aggregated for batch reporting.
D) Evaluated for treatment of the disease.

Answer 2

Evaluated for treatment of the disease.

Question 3

Insurers often have access to longitudinal performance data through:

A) Claims information such as coded and administrative data.
B) A more comprehensive clinical picture but limited sample size.
C) Data developed by standards development organizations but no external comparison.
D) A more limited clinical picture with added local data.

Answer 3

Claims information such as coded and administrative data.

Question 4

Use of aggregate data from various payers is limited is because:

A) Differing providers and coding systems from provider data.
B) Lack of legal right to data for encounter information.
C) Differing diagnostic code requirements for reimbursement.
D) Lack of data sharing agreements and differing data elements for the longitudinal records.

Question 5

Coded and administrative data are used by public health agencies for:

A) Reimbursing health services provided.
B) Planning related to health care services.
C) Tracking and preventing disability and disease.
D) Pay for performance.

Question 6

The information contained in the databases developed from the patient record is considered to be:

A) Primary data.
B) Secondary data.
C) Tertiary data.
D) None of the above.

Question 7

The process of developing a data dictionary involves:

A) It is a consensus among individuals to share information in a specified way so that all participants derive the same meaning from the content.
B) Accumulating a list of data elements over time so that new elements are captured as the electronic health record evolves.
C) Performance indicators are constantly evolving and it facilitates sharing of information.
D) It is an information repository that gives participants several meanings on the basis of the content of the electronic health record.

Question 8

In the physician office the codes for reimbursement may be assigned by those who have not been trained in established coding rules. Because of this:

A) The resulting codes may be more accurate than inpatient codes.
B) The resulting codes will be of equal quality to those generated in the inpatient coding process.
C) The resulting codes will be of lower quality than those generated in the inpatient coding process.
D) The resulting codes will be exactly the same.

Question 9

A physician is able to evaluate her use of antibiotics compared with the use of antibiotics by other physicians in similar patients within the same organization. This is an example of:

A) Lack of a Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) format in a format usable by physicians who need it.
B) A warehouse format that is usable by quality improvement and health care professionals.
C) Lack of core measures in a format that is usable by those who need it.
D) A data warehouse format that is not usable by those who need it.

Question 10

Which organization plays an active role in trauma registries?

A) American College of Surgeons
B) American Heart Association
C) American Medical Association
D) None of the above

Question 11

Compared with claims data, the value of registry data is of:

A) Higher quality.
B) Lower quality.
C) Higher consistency.
D) Lower consistency.

Question 12

A hospital would like to evaluate readmission rates of total hip replacements. What data should be used to identify the cases in the organization?

A) Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS)
B) Core measures
C) Pay for performance
D) Claims data

Question 13

The reference date for a cancer registry is defined as the date the:

A) Registry is implemented.
B) Data collection begins.
C) Cancer committee is formed.
D) Cancer program is approved.

Question 14

Cancer screening and smoking cessation programs are a function of which type of population-based registries?

A) Incidence
B) Cancer control
C) Research
D) All of the above

Question 15

A registry established in Pennsylvania to capture all patients with reportable cases is a:

A) Population-based registry.
B) Specialty registry.
C) Cancer control registry.
D) Hospital-based registry.

Question 16

Information regarding the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia is collected by the Joint Commission and subsequently provided through its Web site to the public. This is an example of what is most commonly known as:

A) Pay for performance.
B) Process management.
C) Core measures.
D) Provider expertise.

Question 17

One of the reasons that aggregate data analysis from varying payers is limited in accuracy is:

A) Differing providers and coding systems from provider data.
B) Lack of legal right to data for encounter information.
C) Differing coding requirement and reimbursement rules.
D) Lack of data sharing agreements and differing data elements for the longitudinal records.

Question 18

Comprehensive data for performance indicators must be obtained from:

A) Various structures of the health care industry.
B) Distribution of data across multiple providers.
C) Benchmarks or standards of care.
D) Correlations between treatments.

Question 19

The outcomes data warehouse should be structured around

A) An individual person whose data is stored in the warehouse.
B) The health care industry's data.
C) The population of people served or to be served by the warehouse.
D) Billed data captured from coded data.

Question 20

Which of the following cases is ineligible for inclusion in the hospital-based cancer registry?

A) Patient admitted to hospice care
B) Patient receiving planned therapy
C) Patient who was diagnosed elsewhere and is receiving part of therapy elsewhere
D) Both a and c

Question 21

All the following are included in the International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) coding scheme except:

A) Differentiation.
B) Etiology.
C) Grading.
D) Morphology.

Question 22

Which organization plays an active role in trauma registries?

A) American College of Surgeons
B) American Heart Association
C) American Medical Association
D) American Health Information Management Association

Question 23

All of the following are minimum required data in the master patient index of a hospital-based cancer registry except:

A) Accession number.
B) Address of the patient.
C) Date of diagnosis.
D) Primary site of cancer.

Question 24

Which of the following neoplastic cases is required inclusion in a hospital cancer registry by the American College of Surgeons?

A) In-situ
B) Malignant
C) Metastatic
D) All of the above

Question 25

In Best Health General Hospital, the cancer registrar associated with the cancer program undertakes a systematic sampling of 5% to 10% of cases in the registry. The main goal of the evaluation is to:

A) Compare the results of the two studies with each other.
B) Optimize care for patients with cancer.
C) Evaluate the quality of the coded data.
D) Contribute to public health cancer-control goals.

Question 26

The reference date for a cancer registry is defined as the date the:

A) Registry is planned.
B) Data collection begins.
C) Cancer committee is formed.
D) Cancer program is approved.

Question 27

All of the following are designated categories of an approved hospital cancer program except:

A) Incident-oriented cancer program.
B) Teaching hospital cancer program.
C) Community hospital cancer program.
D) Free-standing cancer center program.

Question 28

What is the required follow-up rate for approved hospital cancer programs?

A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 90%

Question 29

All of the following clinical departments are required to be represented on a hospital cancer committee except:

A) Clinical laboratory.
B) Surgery.
C) Radiology.
D) Pathology.

Question 30

Cancer registries have been established to:

A) Investigate the cause(s) of cancer as a disease.
B) Eradicate cancer as a disease.
C) Assess cancer incidence, treatment, and end results.
D) Monitor physician performance in treating cancer patients.

Question 31

Which organ-specific registry is associated with the national Organ Procurement Transplantation Network?

A) Kidney
B) Heart/lung
C) Pancreas
D) All of the above

Question 32

A study is conducted that evaluates the impact on the use of coronary artery bypass grafts in patients with myocardial infarctions in the populations of two states. Which of the following is the most likely way to adjust for risk in the two populations?

A) Coding Classification Sets
B) Elixhauser Comorbidity Measurement
C) Weiner Data Complexes
D) Charleson Index

Question 33

To provide a randomly sample of cases for quality control review, the registrar selects cases from:

A) The follow-up file.
B) The cancer case file.
C) The accession register.
D) The physician attending register.

Question 34

Immunization registries store data electronically on all National Vaccine Advisory Committee-approved core data elements. Knowledge of vaccination rates helps to determine:

A) The potential need for rapid immunization in the event of bioterrorist attack.
B) Whether public health goals are being met.
C) Whether public health interventions are needed to increase immunization rates.
D) All of the above.

Question 35

A program approved by the American College of Surgeons has 1000 new cases of cancer in the registry annually. To meet approval requirements, at least how many cases must be reviewed?

A) 100
B) 50
C) 25
D) 150

Question 36

Each of the following is a required component of an approved hospital cancer program except:

A) Cancer committee.
B) Cancer registry.
C) Cancer conferences.
D) Cancer control.

Question 37

A cancer registrar identifies applicable data elements and includes them in the registry data. This is an example of what kind of process required by the American College of Surgeons?

A) Abstracting
B) Posting
C) Quality control
D) Accessioning

Question 38

A physician at Best Health General Hospital questions the quality of the data in the computerized cancer registry. The process by which this could be addressed would be specified in the registry manual under:

A) Coding and abstracting policies and procedures.
B) Computerized database policies and procedures.
C) Confidentiality policies and procedures.
D) Quality control policies and procedures.

Question 39

Which of the following cancer registry files is considered a temporary file?

A) Accession register
B) Follow-up
C) Patient index
D) Primary site

Question 40

Certified Tumor Registrar is:

A) A credential based on education.
B) A credential based on an examination.
C) A credential that is honorary.
D) None of the above.

Question 41

Registries are established for different purposes and respond to different regulating bodies.

Question 42

The establishment of statewide cancer registries in states where population-based registries did not exist was a result of federal legislation.

Question 43

Approved cancer programs are required to publish and distribute an annual report.

Question 44

Population-based and hospital-based cancer registries are of several types.

Question 45

Staging of neoplasms is recorded at the time of initial diagnosis and treatment.

Question 46

Lifelong follow-up has been a requirement for all population-based and hospital cancer registries since their inception.

Question 47

Monitoring cancer incidence is legislatively mandated in most states.

Question 48

The registration and tracking of implantable medical devices by manufacturers is mandated by law.

Question 49

Which of the following cancer data may be released without patient authorization?

A) Aggregate
B) Patient
C) Physician
D) Facility

Question 50

One purpose of population-based cancer registries is the investigation of the cause of cancer.

Question 51

A cancer committee must be operational before a hospital cancer program can be approved.

Question 52

The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) serves as the basis for developing reportable cases for registry eligibility in a hospital cancer program.

Question 53

Which of the following is intended to assess the annual caseload and provide each patient with a registry identification number?

A) Accession register
B) Follow-up
C) Patient index
D) Primary site

Question 54

The primary goal of a hospital-based cancer registry is the improvement of care to the cancer patient.

Question 55

The United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) has administered the contract for the nation's only Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network (OPTN) since 1986.

Question 56

The International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, 3rd edition (ICD-O-3) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Question 57

The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) program was federally mandated.

Question 58

Federal law requires the reporting of implant problems to the Food and Drug Administration when there is a probability a device has caused a death, serious illness, or injury.

Question 59

The type of population-based cancer registry for a geographical area is determined largely by legislative mandate and funding.