Deck 12: The Health History

Question 1

Which of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis before oral procedures?

A) Heart murmur
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Prior infective endocarditis
D) Heart transplant

Answer 1

Prior infective endocarditis

Question 2

Which of the following regulations ensures confidentiality of health information?

A) Affordable Care Act
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C) Federal Personal Confidentiality Act
D) None of the above

Answer 2

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Question 3

When the medical history includes a history of myocardial infarction, which of the following assessments is used to determine when it is safe to provide oral care?

A) Six months of time have passed since the event
B) Three months of time have passed since the event
C) The client has functional capacity to run a short distance and climb stairs
D) Either a or b

Answer 3

The client has functional capacity to run a short distance and climb stairs

Question 4

Which of the following categories in the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Risk Classification describes a healthy client with no systemic disease?

A) ASA 0
B) ASA I
C) ASA II
D) ASA E

Question 5

For the client who reports having an artificial heart valve, antibiotic prophylaxis should be given according to what schedule?

A) At the appointment time
B) One half hour before the appointment
C) 2 hours before the appointment
D) 1 hour after procedure is initiated

Question 6

All of the following references are used during a thorough health history review except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Physician's Desk Reference
B) Merck Manual of Diagnosis and Therapy
C) A dental drug reference
D) Results from annual physical examination

Question 7

All of the following are related to clinical issues of liver disease except one. Which is the exception?

A) Bleeding problems
B) Oral ulcerations
C) Risk of blood-borne contagion
D) Careful consideration of a prescription for drugs

Question 8

When the health history reveals the client has had a prior unpleasant dental experience that has caused dental phobia, what is the most likely potential emergency situation?

A) Asthmatic attack
B) Seizure
C) Vasovagal syncope

Question 9

What ASA risk classification is appropriate for the client who has a history of myocardial infarction but who can meet a 10 metabolic equivalent (MET) functional capacity?

A) ASA I
B) ASA II
C) ASA III
D) ASA IV
E) ASA V

Question 10

All of the following agents can be used for antibiotic prophylaxis except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Amoxicillin
B) Azithromycin
C) Clindamycin
D) Erythromycin

Question 11

According to the American Association of Orthopedic Surgeons (AAOS), antibiotic prophylaxis should be prescribed for the client with a prosthetic joint according to which of the following schedules?

A) Before any dental appointment
B) Only during the first 2 years following joint replacement
C) Only for hip and knee replacements
D) None of the above

Question 12

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended to prevent which of the following conditions?

A) Infections of the periodontium
B) Endocarditis
C) Joint arthritis
D) Kidney infection

Question 13

The health history questionnaire includes all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Reason for appointment
B) History of dental procedures
C) Medical problems experienced
D) Height, weight, date of birth
E) Record of missed appointments

Question 14

When a history of myocardial infarction is reported, the client should meet with of the following metabolic equivalents?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Question 15

A dental drug reference resource can provide all of the following information essentials except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Identify generic and brand names
B) Contraindication with vasoconstrictor
C) Dose-related toxicity
D) Clinical implications

Question 16

Which of the following is not a component of a comprehensive health history?

A) Diet
B) Demographic information
C) Chief complaint
D) Dental history

Question 17

Collecting a complete health history allows the dental practitioner to:

A) determining the need for oral procedures.
B) assess the client's level of oral and systemic wellness.
C) providing evidence-based treatment procedures.
D) gaining historical information on client health.

Question 18

The health history interview is an opportunity to:

A) clarify information in the questionnaire form.
B) develop rapport and a professional relationship.
C) sense if the client is anxious or fearful.
D) identify risks for medical emergencies.
E) do all of the above.

Question 19

Patient-centered interviewing is:

A) a technique in which clinicians seek to elicit the patient's emotions and personal health agenda to better understand the psychosocial context for disease
B) questions that require more than a yes/no response.
C) a istening technique that includes neutral, encouraging responses such as "I see" or "uh-huh," or nonverbal cues such as nodding and attentive gaze

Question 20

All of the following are requirements for the legal preparation of the health history document except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Written with ink
B) Error is marked through with one line and "error" written above
C) Error should be initialed and dated
D) Form is signed by client or guardian
E) Patient aged 16 can sign personal health history

Question 21

Which of the following questions are inappropriate when questioning the client about antibiotic prophylaxis?

A) What antibiotic was taken?
B) What dose was taken?
C) How long ago was the antibiotic taken?
D) Did insurance cover the cost of the antibiotic?

Question 22

Bacteremia can develop from which of the following procedures?

A) Chewing
B) Use of toothpick between teeth
C) Flossing
D) Toothbrushing
E) All of the above

Question 23

The 2009 information statement from the AAOS regarding the guideline for antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent prosthetic joint infection is an evidence-based guideline.

Question 24

The case control study completed by the Mayo Clinic concluded that:

A) antibiotic prophylaxis did not prevent infection in a prosthetic joint.
B) antibiotic prophylaxis diminishes the risk for infection in the prosthetic joint.
C) antibiotic prophylaxis is essential to prevent prosthetic joint infection.
D) dental procedures lead to prosthetic joint infection.

Question 25

The risk for syncope can be reduced when an anxious client is treated with:

A) plastic instruments.
B) family or friends in the operatory.
C) sedation pharmacology.

Question 26

Evidence based protocols used in the dental office can protect the office if litigation occurs following a decision made for clinical procedures.

Question 27

Direct observation is a component of the medical history assessment.

Question 28

If the client at risk for infective endocarditis comes to the appointment without taking antibiotic prophylaxis according to the prescribed regimen, which of the following is recommended?

A) Dismiss the client and reschedule.
B) Take the antibiotic when the client is seated.
C) Administer the antibiotic by IV infusion.

Question 29

Physician consultation can be completed by all the following methods except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Telephone contact
B) By faxing documents
C) Asking client what information was provided by physician
D) Written request for information

Question 30

For the client undergoing cancer chemotherapy, medical consultation can provide which of the following?

A) Need for antibiotic prophylaxis
B) Risk for complications after oral procedures
C) Prognosis for medical condition
D) All of the above