Deck 8: Crime and Mental Disorders

Question 1

Delusional disorders are also called

A) paranoid disorders.
B) psychotic disorders.
C) believe disorders.
D) schizophrenia.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Whose trial generated so much public outcry that Congress passed the Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984?

A) Ted Bundy's
B) John Hinckley's
C) The BTK Killer's
D) O.J. Simpson's

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Some states supplement the ________ with the "irresistible impulse test."

A) M'Naghten Rule
B) Brawner Rule
C) ALI Rule
D) Durham Rule
E) NGRI

Answer 3

A

Question 4

DSM stands for

A) Dissociative Somatic Manual.
B) Diagnoses of Serious Mentality.
C) Douglas Simpson Marker.
D) Diagnostic Statistical Manual.

Question 5

The U.S.federal court system currently uses which insanity standard?

A) The Durham Rule
B) The M'Naghten Rule
C) ALI/Brawner Rule
D) Insanity Defense Reform Act

Question 6

The research shows that violent people

A) fantasize more than nonviolent people.
B) exhibit the violence triad more frequently than nonviolent people.
C) often have a history of mental disorder.
D) usually have a history of violence.

Question 7

A developmental status attributable to a cognitive impairment is called

A) developmental readiness.
B) intellectual amblyopia.
C) developmental dysfunction.
D) intellectual disability.

Question 8

If the court determines that an individual was robbed of her or his own free will at the time of a homicide because of mental disease or defect,the individuals would most likely be judged

A) IST.
B) incompetent to stand trial.
C) mentally ill.
D) NGRI.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A) Most criminals are mentally ill.
B) Most criminals have a mental disorder.
C) Most mentally disordered individuals are not violent.
D) Most murderers cannot help themselves because of mental illness.

Question 10

The insanity defense is used in approximately what percent of felony criminal offenses in the United States?

A) About 1%
B) 5% to 10%
C) 11% to 15%
D) About 20%
E) Between 20% and 27%

Question 11

In the Brawner Rule,the caveat paragraph intends to exclude ________ from using the insanity defense.

A) defendants under the influence of alcohol at the time of the offense
B) psychopaths
C) defendants under the influence of drugs at the time of the offense
D) intellectually disabled individuals

Question 12

The core of the insanity defense involves which one of the following issues?

A) Competency to stand trial
B) Whether the person can be rehabilitated
C) Criminal responsibility
D) Past psychiatric history

Question 13

All of the following standards or rules to determine insanity are or have been represented in various state or federal legal systems except the

A) Dayton Rule.
B) M'Naghten Rule.
C) Brawner Rule.
D) Product Test.

Question 14

Which one of the following clinical diagnoses is most frequently found in criminal offenders?

A) Antisocial personality disorder
B) Psychopath
C) Delusional disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder

Question 15

Disorganized,catatonic,paranoid,undifferentiated,and residual are all subtypes of

A) schizophrenia.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) delusional disorder.

Question 16

When the M'Naghten Rule is applied,the essential inquiry is whether

A) the act was the result or product of a mental defect.
B) the person was able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time of offense.
C) the act was the result of an "irresistible impulse."
D) the act was the result of an addiction.

Question 17

What was the Supreme Court's ruling in Jackson v.Indiana?

A) Psychoactive medication could not be given to incompetent defendants.
B) Psychoactive medication could not be given to defendants found insane.
C) Incompetent defendants could not be hospitalized indefinitely if no progress was made to restore them.

Question 18

Which well-known individual was found not guilty by reason of insanity?

A) Ted Bundy
B) Kenneth Bianchi
C) Bonnie Elizabeth Parker
D) Andrea Yates

Question 19

According to the DSM-5,which one of the following features is not a symptom of antisocial personality disorder?

A) Emotional intelligence
B) Impulsivity
C) Irritability
D) Deceitfulness

Question 20

What is the most common type of forensic assessment conducted for the criminal courts?

A) Assessment of sex offenders
B) Evaluation of sanity
C) Assessment of dangerousness at sentencing
D) Evaluation of competency to stand trial

Question 21

The right and wrong test refers to which one of the following insanity defenses?

A) Magna Carta
B) The M'Naghten Rule
C) ALI/Brawner Rule
D) The Durham Rule

Question 22

Mental health courts are alternative,specialized courts that are designed to treat offenders with a history of substance abuse.

Question 23

In Tarasoff v.Regents of the University of California (1974.,the Supreme Court of California held that a psychotherapist has an obligation to use reasonable care to protect potential victims of a patient.

Question 24

Which diagnostic label has been associated with the iatrogenic phenomenon in recent years?

A) Paranoid schizophrenia
B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Post-traumatic stress disorder
D) Dissociative identity disorder

Question 25

The phenomenon that occurs when a mental disorder or syndrome is unintentionally caused by a clinician or practitioner is known as

A) Iatrogenic.
B) Tautological fallacy.
C) Projection syndrome.
D) Transference.

Question 26

Adjudicative competence is now the standard term for not guilty by reason of insanity.

Question 27

Which form of amnesia is the most widely used justification for an insanity defense or mitigation of criminal responsibility in the U.S.courts today?

A) Chronic organic amnesia
B) Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder
C) Wernicke's amnesia
D) Limited amnesia

Question 28

The term prediction of dangerousness has been replaced by the term criminal responsibility.

Question 29

In Foucha v.Louisiana,the U.S.Supreme Court ruled that defendants found NGRI could

A) not be retried once they were no longer insane.
B) not remain hospitalized once they were no longer mentally disordered.
C) be hospitalized for as long as they remain dangerous.
D) be given medication to treat their disorder.

Question 30

The use of amnesia as a defense has been largely unsuccessful in the United States.

Question 31

MPD is synonymous with dissociative identity disorder.

Question 32

Statistics show that more than half of all prison and jail inmates might benefit from mental health treatment.

Question 33

The most common result of a PTSD defense has been one of

A) diminished responsibility.
B) guilty, but mentally ill.
C) not guilty by reason of insanity.
D) incompetent to stand trial.

Question 34

According to the text,the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.

Question 35

Ken Bianchi,the Hillside Strangler,was diagnosed as a psychopath.

Question 36

In the Supreme Court case Sell v.U.S.(2003),the Court ruled that

A) in cases that did not involve violence, courts should be very careful in ordering medication to treat mentally disordered offenders who refuse the medication.
B) mentally disordered offenders should be sedated in the courtroom.
C) psychoactive drugs should not be ordered by any court against the wishes of the defendant, even if the mentally disordered offender tends to be violent.
D) mentally disordered offenders should be institutionalized until cured.

Question 37

Which disorder has been referred to as the UFO of psychiatry?

A) Dissociative Identity Disorder
B) Postpartum Psychosis
C) Dysthymic Disorder
D) Borderline Personality Disorder

Question 38

A rare but severe mental disorder believed to be linked to childbirth and similar to serious bipolar depression is postpartum

A) blues.
B) psychopathy.
C) delusions.
D) psychosis.

Question 39

There is evidence that men who have both schizophrenia and ________ are at an increased risk of violent offending.

A) substance abuse
B) delusional disorder
C) affective psychosis
D) depression

Question 40

Insanity is a legal term that refers to a defendant's state of mind at the time of the crime.

Question 41

Adjudicative competence involves competence to proceed and ________ competence.

Question 42

All states and all courts recognize that behavior that is likely to result in ________ harm is dangerous.

Question 43

Compare and contrast actuarial measures and clinical measures of risk assessment.

Question 44

A major criticism of drug treatment is the ________ they often produce.

Question 45

Delusional disorder is now included under the ________ spectrum and other psychotic disorders section in the DSM-5.

Question 46

How has the media affected public perception of mental disorder and violence? Include information on the history and prevalence of mental disorder and violence.

Question 47

Structured professional judgment is also referred to as structured ________ judgment.

Question 48

Schizophrenia typically begins ________ in life.

Question 49

Identify and include symptoms of the four diagnostic categories most relevant to criminal behavior.

Question 50

Risk assessment suggests that clinicians and researchers are more proficient at assessing the ________ that a given individual will engage in harmful behavior than they are at outrightly predicting that someone is dangerous or will be violent.

Question 51

Discuss the role of law enforcement and mental health courts in deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill.

Question 52

Describe guilty but mentally ill statutes.Why do many legal scholars oppose them?

Question 53

Most contemporary research indicates that the percentage of mentally disordered inmates in the nation's jails and prisons is ________.

Question 54

The ________ case was the impetus for duty to warn/protect statutes.

Question 55

Mental illness is manifested in behavior that ________ notably from normal conduct.