Deck 8: Considering Your Reproductive Choices

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT true about the FemCap cervical cap?

A) It is made of silicone and fits snugly over the cervix.
B) It must be fitted by a medical practitioner.
C) It must be kept in place at least 10 hours after intercourse.
D) It can be removed, cleaned, and reinserted immediately.

Answer 1

It must be kept in place at least 10 hours after intercourse.

Question 2

A primary advantage of the contraceptive sponge is that

A) only one type of spermicide can be used with it.
B) protection lasts for up to 12 hours.
C) it does not require a fitting from a doctor.
D) it protects well against all STIs.

Answer 2

it does not require a fitting from a doctor.

Question 3

Fertility is a person's ability to

A) produce viable sperm.
B) reproduce.
C) have a normal delivery.
D) resist sexually transmitted infections.

Answer 3

reproduce.

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT true about male condoms?

A) They can be used with baby oil and body lotions as lubricants.
B) They can be purchased with a spermicide.
C) They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.
D) They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently.

Question 5

A rise in a woman's basal body temperature signals

A) that ovulation has occurred.
B) the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
C) that fertilization has occurred.
D) the end of the current menstrual period.

Question 6

Which of the following is true about emergency contraceptive pills?

A) They are 95 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse.
B) Two brands are now available over-the-counter subject to certain age limits.
C) Most college health centers do not provide emergency contraception.
D) They are 100 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT an example of a barrier method of birth control?

A) Diaphragms
B) Spermicides
C) Condoms
D) Oral contraceptives

Question 8

Which of the following lubricants is safe to use with a condom?

A) Baby oil
B) Hand lotion
C) Petroleum jelly
D) Water-based lubricant

Question 9

Which of the following is true about sterilization?

A) Hysterectomy is the only sterilization method used for females.
B) Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control achieved through surgical means.
C) There are age limits on sterilization procedures.
D) A tubal ligation is a high-risk procedure only used if other methods are not possible.

Question 10

Oral contraceptive pills are

A) an effective barrier contraceptive method.
B) up to 99 percent effective at preventing pregnancy if used correctly.
C) most commonly used by women who have had at least one child.
D) effective protection against STIs.

Question 11

To ensure its effectiveness, the best place to store a condom would be

A) in a bathroom storage drawer away from sharp objects.
B) in a wallet.
C) in the glove box of a locked car.
D) in the freezer.

Question 12

Diaphragms

A) can be purchased without a prescription.
B) must be removed within two hours following intercourse.
C) create a physical and chemical barrier to sperm.
D) have a low effectiveness rate.

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true about NuvaRing?

A) It is left in place for 4 weeks.
B) Even when used properly, it is much less effective than oral contraceptives.
C) It exposes the user to a lower dose of estrogen than the combination pill.
D) It requires the use of spermicide.

Question 14

An IUD

A) is unlikely to cause complications.
B) contains hormones.
C) offers long-term protection from pregnancy.
D) causes a long delay in the return of fertility.

Question 15

Leaving a diaphragm or tampon in for an extended period of time increases the risk for

A) AIDS.
B) hypertension.
C) HPV.
D) toxic shock syndrome.

Question 16

The difference between medical and surgical abortions is that

A) medical abortions do not require follow-up with a physician.
B) surgical abortions require more steps than medical abortions.
C) medical abortions are performed without entering the uterus.
D) surgical abortions are performed without entering the uterus.

Question 17

Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of the

A) major surgery involved.
B) general anesthetic used.
C) long recovery period required.
D) fear of decreased sexual performance.

Question 18

Fertility awareness methods of birth control include all of the following EXCEPT

A) the calendar method.
B) the body temperature method.
C) the cervical mucous method.
D) abstinence.

Question 19

The first widely used form of birth control used by women was

A) the pill.
B) spermicidal foams and jellies.
C) the diaphragm.
D) the IUD.

Question 20

The typical use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following?

A) Daily use
B) Human error
C) Perfect use
D) Familiarity with the method

Question 21

A fetus is the term used to describe an embryo as of

A) the first month of pregnancy.
B) 6 weeks of pregnancy.
C) the third month of pregnancy.
D) 10 weeks of pregnancy.

Question 22

Postpartum depression

A) frequently occurs just before childbirth.
B) can lead to bipolar disorder.
C) is characterized by fatigue, depression, and mood swings.
D) is caused by the nutritional demands of breast feeding.

Question 23

Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption. The physician will likely advise that she

A) limit her intake to one glass per day.
B) limit her intake to two glasses per day.
C) abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.
D) have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner.

Question 24

When a pregnant woman's water breaks, what is actually happening is

A) the placental barrier breaks.
B) the cervix dilates.
C) the baby enters the birth canal.
D) the amniotic sac breaks.

Question 25

Which of the following is true about preeclampsia?

A) It usually occurs in the first trimester.
B) It is never a life-threatening condition for the fetus.
C) Family history of preeclampsia on the man's or woman's side is a risk factor.
D) The incidence of preeclampsia is higher for second- and third-time mothers.

Question 26

Which of the following is true about the third trimester of pregnancy?

A) It is the period during which the placenta becomes well established.
B) The fetus grows the least during this trimester.
C) The fetus must get large amounts of calcium, iron, and nitrogen from the food the mother consumes.
D) It is the period during which the embryo differentiates and develops its various organ systems.

Question 27

Which of the following circumstances can cause a miscarriage?

A) Maternal infection or hormone imbalance
B) Too much caffeine
C) Genetic normality
D) Robust maternal health

Question 28

The transition stage of birth is characterized by

A) the baby's head moving into the birth canal.
B) the baby exiting from the birth canal.
C) the initial dilation of the cervix.
D) the placenta detaching from the uterus.

Question 29

Preconception health involves all of the following EXCEPT

A) reducing or eliminating caffeine intake.
B) avoiding x-rays and hazardous environmental chemicals.
C) stopping tobacco and alcohol use.
D) avoiding food containing folic acid.

Question 30

During pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid intake by eating

A) steak and pork.
B) chicken and turkey.
C) low-fat milk and yogurt.
D) dark leafy greens and breads.

Question 31

Fertility drugs

A) increase the chances of multiple births.
B) reduce the risk of ovarian cysts.
C) can cause hypertension.
D) guarantee a successful pregnancy.

Question 32

Which of the following is true about teratogenic effects?

A) The fetus is most susceptible to birth defects during the last three months of pregnancy.
B) These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure.
C) The fetus cannot develop an addiction to the drugs the mother is using.
D) A rubella infection in the mother is not associated with teratogenic effects.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT true about male infertility?

A) Low sperm count can be caused by wearing excessively tight underwear.
B) Exposure of the scrotum to radiation can cause infertility in men.
C) Exposure of the scrotum to intense heat or cold can cause infertility in men.
D) Male infertility problems account for only 10 percent of infertility cases.

Question 34

A false negative pregnancy test may result from

A) taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy.
B) high sodium in the diet.
C) a staph infection.
D) a sexually transmitted disease.

Question 35

A birth defect that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is

A) blindness.
B) deafness.
C) spina bifida.
D) Down syndrome.

Question 36

To reduce the risk of her child having spina bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient?

A) Folic acid
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin B₁₂
D) Biotin

Question 37

During her pregnancy, Emily should avoid all of the following EXCEPT

A) x-rays.
B) cleaning her cat's litter box.
C) pesticides and other lawn chemicals.
D) eggs.

Question 38

The most common cause of female infertility in the United States is

A) pelvic inflammatory disease.
B) gonorrhea.
C) polycystic ovary syndrome.
D) endometriosis.

Question 39

Which of the following is true about nutrition and exercise during pregnancy?

A) Vitamin supplements can make up for a less-than-balanced diet.
B) Weight gain during pregnancy is unhealthy for the baby.
C) Exercise can be beneficial, but the woman should consult with her physician first.
D) All exercise should be avoided because it is harmful to the developing fetus.

Question 40

Cesarean sections are performed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A) if labor lasts too long.
B) if the baby is in physiological distress.
C) if the baby is about the exit the uterus any way but headfirst.
D) if the mother has diabetes.

Question 41

Breast-fed infants

A) recover slower than others from illness.
B) are more prone to allergies.
C) have a decreased incidence of illness.
D) are more likely to be obese.

Question 42

Which of the following is a female sterilization procedure that involves tying off or cauterizing certain structures of the reproductive system?

A) Tubal ligation
B) Vasectomy
C) Hysterotomy
D) Suction curettage

Question 43

The fluid-filled, protective pouch surrounding the fetus is the

A) amniotic sac.
B) uterus.
C) placenta.
D) endometrium.

Question 44

A birth defect caused by the mother's alcohol intake during pregnancy is

A) rubella.
B) spina bifida.
C) FAS.
D) Down syndrome.

Question 45

A surgical sterilization procedure that involves cutting the vas deferens is a(n)

A) endoscopy.
B) tubal ligation.
C) hysterectomy.
D) vasectomy.

Question 46

Amniocentesis

A) involves snipping tissue from the developing fetal sac.
B) is strongly recommended for women under the age of 35.
C) can identify genetic abnormalities present in the fetus.
D) is entirely risk-free.

Question 47

Substances designed to kill sperm are known as

A) spermicides.
B) progestins.
C) teratogens.
D) fungicides.

Question 48

Which form of birth control is injected every three months to remain effective?

A) Mirena
B) Ortho Evra
C) NuvaRing
D) Depo-Provera

Question 49

The various methods used to prevent pregnancy are known as

A) implantation.
B) conception.
C) ovulation.
D) contraception.

Question 50

The surgical procedure that involves removal of the uterus is a

A) hysterotomy.
B) tubal ligation.
C) hysterectomy.
D) vasectomy.

Question 51

An infection during pregnancy that can cause blindness or hearing disorders in the infant is

A) rubella.
B) spina bifida.
C) FAS.
D) Down syndrome.

Question 52

Which form of birth control involves alteration of sexual behavior during certain times of the month?

A) Withdrawal
B) Fertility awareness
C) Abstinence
D) Outercourse

Question 53

Which assisted reproductive technology process involves the fertilization of a woman's egg outside of her body and the transfer of the fertilized egg to her uterus?

A) Embryo transfer
B) Alternative insemination
C) In vitro fertilization
D) Nonsurgical embryo transfer

Question 54

Which of the following procedures performed during pregnancy can determine the size and position of the fetus and detect birth defects in the central nervous and digestive systems?

A) Amniocentesis
B) Ultrasound
C) Triple marker screen
D) Chorionic villus sampling

Question 55

The fertilization of an ovum by a sperm is

A) implantation.
B) conception.
C) ovulation.
D) contraception.

Question 56

The relatively ineffective method of birth control, known as coitus interruptus, is the

A) body temperature method.
B) calendar method.
C) outercourse method.
D) withdrawal method.

Question 57

Drugs, chemicals, and radiation that can cause birth defects are known as

A) progestins.
B) carcinogens.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) teratogens.

Question 58

Which form of hormonal birth control works transdermally?

A) Mirena
B) Ortho Evra
C) NuvaRing
D) Depo-Provera

Question 59

The network of blood vessels that provides nourishment to the fetus is the

A) amniotic sac.
B) uterus.
C) placenta.
D) endometrium.

Question 60

A cause of infertility in which uterine tissue is implanted outside the uterus and blocks the fallopian tubes is

A) toxoplasmosis.
B) endometriosis.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease.
D) ovarian cancer.

Question 61

Which diagnostic procedure is a maternal blood test that can detect the potential for a birth defect or genetic abnormality?

A) Triple marker screen
B) Laboratory pregnancy test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Chorionic villus sampling

Question 62

Male infertility problems account for around 35 percent of infertility cases.

Question 63

All spermicides are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infections.

Question 64

The sponge is inconvenient because it requires a trip to the doctor for fitting.

Question 65

Women who use oral contraceptives and also smoke are at a higher risk of

A) weight gain.
B) blood clots and hypertension.
C) pneumonia and lung cancer.
D) pregnancy.

Question 66

Which form of contraception involves implanting a small object in a woman's uterus?

A) Cervical cap
B) Contraceptive implant
C) NuvaRing
D) Intrauterine device

Question 67

One advantage of the female condom is that it can be used multiple times.

Question 68

Alcohol is considered a teratogenic substance.

Question 69

Male condoms were invented during the 19ᵗʰ century.

Question 70

What factors do you think should be taken into consideration when planning a pregnancy? Provide information from the chapter to support your answer.

Question 71

Choosing if and when to have children can be considered one of our greatest responsibilities.

Question 72

One to two percent of mothers experience postpartum depression.

Question 73

Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women of all ages.

Question 74

Explain the difference between abstinence and outercourse and the pros and cons of each. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer.

Question 75

A three-month segment of a pregnancy during which certain developmental changes occur in the embryo or fetus is a

A) gestation period.
B) cycle.
C) trimester.
D) phase.

Question 76

When a fertilized egg is implanted outside the uterus, usually in a fallopian tube, this causes which dangerous condition?

A) Stillbirth
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Miscarriage
D) Preeclampsia

Question 77

Diaphragms can typically be purchased over the counter wherever condoms are sold.

Question 78

Outercourse is 100 percent effective against STIs.

Question 79

Which type of female birth control involves the use of synthetic estrogen and/or progestin?

A) Hormonal
B) Barrier
C) Chemical
D) Body temperature

Question 80

If a woman has a urinary tract infection and takes a pregnancy test, a false positive may result.