Deck 9: Foundations of Interpersonal and Group Behavior

Question 1

In which stage of group development do members develop norms of behavior?

A)Mutual acceptance
B)Control and organization
C)Communication and decision making
D)Motivation and productivity
E)Reformation

Answer 1

C

Question 2

____ are informal and organized around a particular activity.

A)Friendship groups
B)Interest groups
C)Command groups
D)All groups
E)Task groups

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is a formal group?

A)Interest
B)Friendship
C)Social
D)Command
E)Grapevine

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The concept of ____ is essential to the definition of groups presented in your text.

A)interaction
B)coordination
C)cohesion
D)member personality
E)proximity

Question 5

What will typically happen in the first phase of group dynamics?

A)The motivation of group members
B)Control and evaluation of group activities
C)A mature group evolves
D)A four-step process of group development
E)The reasons for forming the group determine the type of group

Question 6

In which stage is the group considered to be mature?

A)Communication and decision making
B)Motivation
C)Productivity
D)Mutual acceptance
E)Control and organization

Question 7

A new product development team is an example of which type of group?

A)Friendship
B)Interest
C)Performance
D)Task
E)Affinity

Question 8

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the stages of group development?

A)A group that fully evolves through the four stages of development usually is productive.
B)As a group progresses through the stages of development it grows in size.
C)The sequence of group development stages is set by the organization.
D)Groups rarely go through more than one stage of development.
E)Groups make choices about which stage of development to complete first.

Question 9

Which of the following is the final stage of group development?

A)Control and organization
B)Mutual acceptance
C)Cohesiveness
D)Homogeneity
E)Conflict and reorganization

Question 10

The group members express their views more openly in the ____ stage of group development.

A)mutual acceptance
B)communication and decision making
C)productivity
D)control and organization
E)motivation

Question 11

The audience at an Oprah Winfrey talk show is an example of a(n) ____ group.

A)special project
B)command
C)task
D)friendship
E)interest

Question 12

The definition of groups presented in your text omits any requirement of

A)interaction.
B)size.
C)influence.
D)group goals.
E)All of these are included in the textbook definition of group.

Question 13

Which of the following is a type of informal group?

A)Special project
B)Friendship
C)Task
D)Command
E)Affinity

Question 14

All of the following are a result of interpersonal behaviors in organizations EXCEPT

A)serve as a source of synergy.
B)serve as a basis for social support.
C)post-decision dissonance.
D)serve as a primary source of need satisfaction.
E)serve as a source of conflict.

Question 15

____ are informal and relatively permanent.

A)Special project groups
B)Command groups
C)Interest groups
D)Friendship groups
E)Task groups

Question 16

The size or number of people that constitute a group is

A)ten or more.
B)limited to fifteen.
C)fewer than two people.
D)limited to ten.
E)two or more.

Question 17

A group of department managers who meet periodically to establish corporate policy is an example of which type of group?

A)Special project
B)Friendship
C)Task
D)Interest
E)Command

Question 18

Which of these are usually temporary and are established to solve a particular problem?

A)Friendship groups
B)Task groups
C)Affinity groups
D)Interest groups
E)Command groups

Question 19

A motorcycle riding club that meets outside of the organization an example of which type of group?

A)Task
B)Interest
C)Command
D)Friendship
E)Convenience

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a stage of group development?

A)Control and organization
B)Motivation and productivity
C)Mutual acceptance
D)Communication and decision making
E)Leadership and norm making

Question 21

The prescriptions that managers can use to reduce the probability of groupthink in group decision making include all of the following EXCEPT

A)leader prescriptions.
B)organization prescriptions.
C)total group prescriptions.
D)individual prescriptions.
E)process prescriptions.

Question 22

When cohesiveness is ____ and norms are ____ compatible with organizational goals, productivity is the highest.

A)low; not
B)high; not
C)high; highly
D)present; highly
E)low; highly

Question 23

Which of the following is not one of the purposes of norms?

A)Norms help the group avoid embarrassing situations.
B)Norms simplify the behaviors of the group members.
C)Norms help the group survive.
D)Norms regulate group members' thoughts and feelings.
E)Norms express the central values of the group.

Question 24

Norms are

A)a tendency toward a particular set of behaviors.
B)a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged.
C)the sum of the activities of individuals.
D)two or more people interacting with and influencing each other.
E)a set of expected behaviors associated with position.

Question 25

Group norms result from a combination of all of the following, EXCEPT

A)the task.
B)the situation.
C)the personality characteristics.
D)the size of the group.
E)the historical traditions of the group.

Question 26

All of the following are true of large groups EXCEPT large groups

A)formalize interactions.
B)set agendas.
C)do not set many rules or regulations.
D)follow parliamentary procedures.
E)offer more social interactions.

Question 27

A homogeneous group is likely to be most productive in situations where all of the following apply EXCEPT:

A)group tasks are sequential.
B)quick action is required.
C)cooperation is needed.
D)group tasks are simple.
E)creativity is required.

Question 28

All of the following are true regarding social loafing EXCEPT

A)it is often a problem in very small groups.
B)how much of a problem social loafing depends in part on the nature of the task.
C)it often results from the assumption that other members will pick up the slack.
D)some members put forth less effort in a group.
E)the amount of social loafing depends in part on the group leader's awareness of it.

Question 29

Brainstorming includes all of the following EXCEPT

A)used in the idea generation phase of decision making.
B)members present ideas and clarify them.
C)ideas are not evaluated.
D)members privately vote on ideas.
E)it does not provide resolution to the problem.

Question 30

Intergroup interactions are affected by all of the following EXCEPT

A)group norms.
B)location.
C)resources.
D)task interdependence.
E)time and goal interdependence.

Question 31

Group composition is

A)the sum of the activities of individuals.
B)a set of expected behaviors associated with a position.
C)usually described in terms of the homogeneity or heterogeneity of group members.
D)two or more people interacting with and influencing each other.
E)expected behavior or behavioral patterns.

Question 32

The Delphi technique is designed for use by groups

A)that are very large.
B)that are very small.
C)that do not meet face-to-face.
D)that have suffered from groupthink in the past.
E)that are familiar with the rules of brainstorming.

Question 33

The organizational setting can enhance group interaction through

A)rules and procedures.
B)organization structure.
C)goals and reward systems.
D)decision-making processes.
E)all of these.

Question 34

All of the following are symptoms of groupthink EXCEPT

A)illusion of invulnerability.
B)collective efforts to rationalize or discount warnings.
C)polarization that affects group decision-making.
D)stereotyped views of enemy leaders.
E)direct pressure on a member.

Question 35

All of the following are used in the nominal group technique of decision-making EXCEPT

A)individuals convenes to address an issue.
B)the issue is described to the group.
C)members publicly vote on the preferred idea.
D)no discussion among the members is permitted.
E)members take turns reporting their ideas.

Question 36

A group is homogeneous if

A)members are similar in one or several ways that are critical to the work of the group.
B)the group is highly productive.
C)two or more people interact with and influence each other.
D)men and women are represented equally in the group.
E)the organization allows the group a high degree of autonomy.

Question 37

All of the following are features of group discussion that contribute to group polarization EXCEPT

A)group members could take an extreme view of an opinion.
B)task uncertainty can be impacted by the decision.
C)persuasive arguments can encourage polarization.
D)members may feel they are not individually responsible.
E)members will accept a more radical decision from their own.

Question 38

____ cohesive groups will not necessarily be more productive in an organizational sense than groups with ____ cohesiveness.

A)Low; high
B)Low; low
C)Highly; high
D)Highly; low
E)Moderately; high

Question 39

Which of the following is one of the four basic factors that affect group performance?

A)Escalation of commitment
B)Groupthink
C)Task deformation
D)Composition
E)Social loafing

Question 40

Which of the following includes conditions conducive to groupthink?

A)Group cohesiveness, leader's promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions
B)Group cohesiveness, members' promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal
C)Group cohesiveness, leader promotion of personal preferences, critical thinking urged
D)Members' promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal, critical thinking urged
E)Group cohesiveness, member's promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions

Question 41

The Delphi technique is a method to systematically gather the judgments of experts who work closely together at a common worksite.

Question 42

A friendship group arises out of the cordial relationships among members and the enjoyment they get from being together.

Question 43

A heterogeneous group is more likely to be productive when the task is complex, requires a collective effort, and demands creativity.

Question 44

The basic group performance factors include groupthink, social loafing, and norm creation.

Question 45

Phase three in the general model of group dynamics implies that a mature group has been formed.

Question 46

Groups productivity depends on successful growth at each stage of the group development process.

Question 47

Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development.

Question 48

A task group is relatively temporary and formal.

Question 49

Increasing group interaction will not usually affect the cohesiveness of the group.

Question 50

Interpersonal relations at work may result in conflict.

Question 51

Social loafing is the tendency of some group members to put forth high levels of effort, which ultimately reduces self-policing.

Question 52

All groups go through all four stages of group development before disbanding.

Question 53

In most situations, the most effective group size is 30 or more members because more ideas are generated.

Question 54

A command group is a type of informal group.

Question 55

A homogeneous group is likely to be more productive when the group task is simple, cooperation is necessary, the group tasks are sequential, and quick action is required.

Question 56

Some groups fail to complete certain stages of development before moving on to later stages.

Question 57

Getting to know one another is part of the mutual acceptance stage of group development.

Question 58

Cohesiveness is generally higher in small groups than it is in large groups.

Question 59

A group norm is a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged.

Question 60

A group is homogenous if the members are similar in one or more ways that are critical to the work of the group.

Question 61

A(n) _________ group is likely to be more productive in situations where the group task is simple.

Question 62

Highly cohesive groups will be more productive for the organization than groups with low cohesiveness.

Question 63

Command groups are usually indicated in the _________ chart.

Question 64

The four group performance factors are composition, size, norms, and _________.

Question 65

Formal groups include task, affinity, and _________ groups.

Question 66

A(n) _________ group is created to solve a particular problem and is relatively temporary.

Question 67

In the nominal group technique, group members share their ideas with each other and then vote on them in private.

Question 68

A committee to study the problems of drugs in schools for one year is an example of a(n) _________ group.

Question 69

A group is two or more persons who _________ with one another in such a way that each person is influenced by or influences another person.

Question 70

Members usually begin to develop _________ of behavior during the communication and decision-making stage of group development.

Question 71

Informal groups consist of friendship and ________ groups.

Question 72

Task groups are usually temporary and often established to solve a particular problem.

Question 73

An illusion of invulnerability and stereotyped views of "enemy" leaders are symptoms of groupthink.

Question 74

__________ groups are established by the organization to do its work.

Question 75

A(n) ________ group is more likely to be productive in situations where the task requires creativity.

Question 76

Group polarization is the tendency for group members to converge on a common decision outcome or solution.

Question 77

Group _________ describes the degree of similarity or difference among group members.

Question 78

A group is ________ if the members are different in one or several ways that are critical to the work.

Question 79

The final stage of group development in which members work effectively towards accomplishing goals is called __________ and __________.

Question 80

_________ groups are relatively permanent collections of employees from the same level in the organization who meet on a regular basis.