Deck 10: Blood

Question 1

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The eosinophil is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed ________.

A) diffusion
B) diapedesis
C) filtration
D) chemotaxis

Answer 2

B

Question 3

A total white blood cell count above 11,000 cells/mm³ is a condition known as ________.

A) leukopenia
B) leukocytosis
C) polycythemia
D) anemia

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The granulocytes are indicated by ________ and ________.

A) Label A; Label C
B) Label B; Label A
C) Label C; Label D
D) Label D; Label B

Question 5

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The lymphocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Question 6

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Question 7

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The neutrophil is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Question 8

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The monocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Question 9

The rate of erythrocyte production is controlled by a hormone known as ________.

A) erythropoietin
B) insulin
C) growth hormone
D) aldosterone

Question 10

The process by which bleeding is stopped is called ________.

A) hematopoiesis
B) erythropoiesis
C) homeostasis
D) hemostasis

Question 11

White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as ________.

A) agranulocytes
B) granulocytes
C) thrombocytes
D) neutrophils

Question 12

Life at a high altitude can lead to a red blood cell disorder known as ________.

A) anemia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leukemia

Question 13

A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as ________.

A) polycythemia
B) leukemia
C) anemia
D) leukocytosis

Question 14

Abnormally low levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as ________.

A) leukocytosis
B) anemia
C) thrombocytopenia
D) leukopenia

Question 15

Normal blood pH falls in a range between ________ to ________.

A) 7.1; 7.2
B) 7.35; 7.45
C) 7.6; 7.75
D) 7.85; 8.05

Question 16

An important plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is ________.

A) thyroglobulin
B) fibrin
C) albumin
D) glucose

Question 17

Each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport ________ molecules of oxygen.

A) 1 (one)
B) 2 ( two)
C) 3 (three)
D) 4 (four)

Question 18

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:
The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D

Question 19

The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known as the ________.

A) hematocrit
B) buffy coat
C) hemoglobin
D) plasma

Question 20

Platelets are fragments of a multinucleate cell known as a ________.

A) megakaryocyte
B) erythrocyte
C) reticulocyte
D) monocyte

Question 21

Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude?

A) aplastic anemia
B) sickle cell anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) polycythemia
E) hemolytic anemia

Question 22

The blood type that contains both antigens A and B is ________.

A) AB
B) A
C) B
D) O

Question 23

During coagulation, long, hairlike molecules known as ________ form the basis for a clot.

A) thrombin
B) prothrombin
C) fibrin
D) fibrinogen

Question 24

Jordan works in a hematology lab and received a blood report showing 22,000 white blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood for a patient. He determines this patient has ________.

A) a normal blood count
B) polycythemia
C) anemia
D) leukocytosis
E) leukopenia

Question 25

White blood cells differ from red blood cells because only they contain ________.

A) a biconcave shape
B) a nucleus and most organelles
C) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide
D) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin
E) cytoplasm

Question 26

When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ________ occurs.

A) coagulation
B) hematopoiesis
C) agglutination
D) alkalosis

Question 27

Erythrocytes ________.

A) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules
B) lack a nucleus and most organelles
C) are the least common of all formed elements
D) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels
E) clot blood

Question 28

Normal whole blood contains ________ g of hemoglobin per 100 mL.

A) 4-8
B) 12-18
C) 15-20
D) 30-35
E) 42-48

Question 29

The matrix of blood is called ________.

A) buffy coat
B) plasma
C) erythrocytes
D) lymphocytes
E) formed elements

Question 30

Which formed element is the most abundant in blood?

A) erythrocyte
B) eosinophil
C) platelet
D) basophil
E) lymphocyte

Question 31

Substances that the body recognizes as foreign are called ________.

A) antigens
B) antibodies
C) formed elements
D) megakaryocytes

Question 32

Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as ________.

A) petechiae
B) hemophilia
C) aplastic anemia
D) thrombocytopneia

Question 33

The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called ________.

A) hemolytic disease of the newborn
B) pernicious anemia
C) sickle cell trait
D) physiologic jaundice

Question 34

The hematocrit is the percentage of ________.

A) plasma in blood
B) erythrocytes in blood
C) leukocytes in blood
D) formed elements in blood
E) platelets in blood

Question 35

If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh ________.

A) positive
B) sensitive
C) negative
D) compatible

Question 36

A person with type B blood can receive blood from blood type(s) ________.

A) AB, B
B) B, O
C) A, B, AB, O
D) B, O, AB

Question 37

In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat situated between the formed elements and the plasma contains ________.

A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) platelets and erythrocytes
C) leukocytes and platelets
D) eythrocytes only
E) leukocytes only

Question 38

The ABO blood groups are based on two antigens: antigen ________ and antigen ________.

A) A; B
B) A; O
C) AB; O
D) B; O

Question 39

Blood is ________.

A) acidic
B) cooler than body temperature
C) sweet tasting
D) composed mostly of white blood cells and platelets
E) slightly alkaline

Question 40

The condition in which maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs is called ________.

A) hemophilia
B) thrombus
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) physiologic jaundice

Question 41

Low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the release of erythropoietin by the ________.

A) stomach
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) hypothalamus
E) spleen

Question 42

What enzyme joins soluble fibrinogen proteins into long molecules of fibrin during coagulation?

A) PF₃
B) thrombin
C) tissue factor
D) prothrombin
E) calcium

Question 43

Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called ________.

A) erythrocytes
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) megakaryocytes
E) macrophages

Question 44

Place these leukocytes in order from the most common to the least common:
1) basophil
2) eosinophil
3) lymphocyte
4) monocyte
5) neutrophil

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

Question 45

The two major groups of white blood cells are ________.

A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) platelets and megakaryocytes
C) neutrophils and basophils
D) granulocytes and agranulocytes
E) granulocytes and leukocytes

Question 46

Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation?

A) albumin
B) fibrin
C) thrombin
D) fibrinogen
E) hemoglobin

Question 47

The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called ________.

A) homeostasis
B) coagulation
C) hemostasis
D) erythropoiesis
E) agglutination

Question 48

Where does hematopoiesis produce new red blood cells?

A) yellow bone marrow
B) articular cartilage
C) red bone marrow
D) epiphyseal line
E) synovial membrane

Question 49

The application of a sterile gauze to a cut aids with ________.

A) platelet plug formation
B) the release of tissue factor
C) the formation of fibrin
D) coagulation
E) vascular spasms

Question 50

The most numerous of the white blood cells are the ________.

A) lymphocytes
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
E) basophils

Question 51

The formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed ________.

A) agglutination
B) coagulation
C) hematopoiesis
D) positive chemotaxis
E) diapedesis

Question 52

The average functional lifespan of an RBC is ________.

A) 20-30 days
B) 50-75 days
C) 100-120 days
D) one year
E) the body's lifetime

Question 53

Blood normally clots in approximately ________.

A) 1 minute
B) 3 to 6 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes
E) 30 minutes

Question 54

An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a(n) ________.

A) megakaryocyte
B) hemocytoblast
C) reticulocyte
D) agranulocyte
E) granulocyte

Question 55

Which of the following cells are classified as granulocytes?

A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
B) lymphocytes and monocytes
C) eosinophils and monocytes
D) basophils and lymphocytes
E) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils

Question 56

A persistent clot in an unbroken blood vessel is known as ________.

A) an embolus
B) polycythemia
C) hemophilia
D) a thrombus
E) leukopenia

Question 57

Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant?

A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) eosinophil

Question 58

Why do you think Mrs. Gonzalez was prescribed heparin, an anticoagulant?

A) to enhance hematopoiesis
B) to inhibit release of erythopoietin
C) to enhance the formation of clots
D) to increase vascular spasms
E) to inhibit the formation of clots

Question 59

Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis?

A) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
E) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm

Question 60

Which type of granulocyte produces antibodies?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes

Question 61

The ion essential for blood clotting is ________.

A) sodium
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) potassium
E) hydrogen

Question 62

Hemolysis most likely will occur when ________.

A) an Rh negative person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
B) any person receives blood type O during a transfusion
C) an Rh positive person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh negative
D) an Rh negative person receives the second transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a blood vessel

Question 63

The primary job of erythrocytes is to transport oxygen.

Question 64

Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients' serum is called ________.

A) blood typing
B) transfusion reaction
C) cross matching
D) hemolysis
E) hemodialysis

Question 65

The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors is the ________.

A) pancreas
B) thyroid
C) liver
D) spleen
E) kidneys

Question 66

Erythrocytes make up the majority of the formed elements.

Question 67

The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is ________.

A) serotonin
B) interleukin
C) agglutinin
D) RhoGAM
E) fibrinogen

Question 68

A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies is the ________.

A) antigen
B) antibody
C) interleukin
D) fibrinogen
E) prothrombin activator

Question 69

Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns results from ________.

A) bone marrow disorders
B) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells
C) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be removed
D) erythrocyte mutations
E) vitamin deficiencies

Question 70

Which of these blood types carries no antigens?

A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood types A, B, and AB
E) blood type O

Question 71

The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is ________.

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) AO

Question 72

Treatment of hemophilia often involves ________.

A) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements
B) injections of missing clotting factors and vitamin B₁₂ injections
C) vitamin K supplements only
D) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor
E) vitamin K supplements and vitamin B₁₂ injections

Question 73

Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of which one of the following vitamins ________.

A) vitamin B₁₂
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K

Question 74

Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder?

A) polycythemia
B) hemophilia
C) leukocytosis
D) leukopenia
E) anemia

Question 75

Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive?

A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood type O
E) blood types A, B, AB, or O

Question 76

Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45.

Question 77

The process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called ________.

A) hemostasis
B) coagulation
C) agglutination
D) clotting cascade
E) hemolysis

Question 78

Which blood type contains the A antigen only?

A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood types A and AB
E) blood type O

Question 79

Molly has blood type A and her daughter has blood type B. Why can't Molly donate blood to her daughter?

A) Blood types A and B will coagulate during a transfusion.
B) Mothers cannot donate blood to their daughters.
C) Blood type B contains anti-A antibodies, which will agglutinate with type A blood.
D) Blood transfusions cannot be performed among relatives.
E) Only fathers can donate blood to their daughters.

Question 80

Severe shock that can be fatal occurs with blood loss exceeding ________.

A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
E) 50 percent